Antimicrobial chemotherapy - Quizzes| Pharmacology Mentor

ANTIBACTERIALS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibacterials:

Drug of choice for antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis is:

Clindamycin

Metronidazole

Penicillin G

Oral vancomycin

None

Drug of choice for acute meningococcal pyogenic meningitis is:

Crystalline penicillin

Amoxycillin

Chloramphenicol

Sulphonamides

None

Empirical treatment for meningococcal meningitis is:

Gentamicin

Cefotetan

Ceftriaxone

Cefoxitin

None

Single dose aminoglycoside administration is more preferable than 8 hourly dose because of:

MIC

Toxicity

Increase perfusion of renal cortex

MBC

Post-antibiotic effect

None

Drug of choice for sore throat caused by Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus is:

Sulfonamides

Ceftriaxone

Penicillin

Erythromycin

None

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Leakage from cell membrane

Inhibition of protein synthesis

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Inhibition of DNA gyrase

None

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in immunocompromised patients is:

Amoxycillin

Cotrimoxazole

Cefotetan

Dexamethasone

None

A post operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which of the following is the most likely combination that was given?

Ciprofloxacin and piperacillin

Cephalexin and gentamicin

Ampicillin and chloramphenicol

Vancomycin and amikacin

None

Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis?

Bacitracin

Streptomycin

Dapsone

Monobactams

Ethambutol

None

10.

Linezolid is best used for:

K.pneumoniae

VRSA

E.coli

MRSA

None

11.

In the given below figure at which site does penicillinase work?

Site D

Site B

Site A

Site C

None

12.

Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

Erythromycin

Tetracicline

Penicillin

Gentamicin

Chloramphenicol

None

13.

Redman syndrome is due to:

Rifampicin

Polymyxin

Vancomycin

Erythromycin

Teicoplanin

None

14.

A potent inhibitor of beta-lactamase is:

Carbenicillin

Amoxicillin

Idoxuridine

Clavulanic acid

Cefamandole

None

15.

Treatment of choice for chancroid is:

Erythromycin

Chloramphenicol

Tetracyclines

Penicillin

None

16.

A 23-year-old man was started on standard four-drug antimycobacterial therapy for treatment of active TB. He has epilepsy, which is controlled with carbamazepine. He has had no seizures in 5 years; however, upon return to clinic at 1 month, he reports having two seizures since his last visit. Which drug may be the reason his carbamazepine is less effective?

Pyrazinamide

Isoniazid

Rifampin

Ethambutol

None

17.

A 21-year-old marathon runner reports to the clinic with acute Achilles tendon rupture. The nurse noted that the patient recently took an antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia. Which antibiotic may have contributed to tendon rupture?

Levofloxacin

Minocycline

Cefdinir

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

None

18.

A 26 year old patient presents with suspected pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic should be given till culture sensitivity result come?

Penicillin

Doxycycline

Cefotaxime + vancomycin

Ceftriaxone + metronidazole

None

19.

This bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor is used for management of abdominal abcess caused by Bacteroides fragilis. Antibiotic associated colitis commonly occurs with use of this drug. Which of the following drug is being described?

Clindamycin

Ticarcillin

Minocycline

Clarithromycin

None

20.

After 5 days of clindamycin treatment for a skin infection, a patient develops diarrhea (10 watery stools/day), severe abdominal pain, and fever. Which of the following organisms would you be concerned about as the causative pathogen of diarrhea?

Escherichia coli

Staphylococcus aureus

Clostridium difficile

Bacteroides fragilis C.

None

21.

Which of the following adverse effects is often employed as a therapeutic use for erythromycin?

QTc prolongation

Photosensitivity

Increased gastrointestinal motility

Deposition in bone

None

22.

Which of the following should be monitored if linezolid is given for more than 14 days?

Platelet count

Liver function tests

Kidney function test

Audiometry

None

23.

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur after limited exposure to some antimicrobial drug is called:

Bactericidal effect

Time dependent killing

Concentration dependent killing

Sequential blockade

Post-antibiotic effect

None

24.

Which of the following aminoglycosides has highest nephrotoxicity?

Amikacin

Paramomycin

Neomycin

Streptomycin

None

25.

A patient diagnosed as having ventilator associated pneumonia, is on treatment with ceftriaxone and amikacin. Culture and sensitivity turned out to be positive for ESBL producing Klebsiella infection. The most appropriate next action should be:

Remove amikacin and add quinolone

Change over to imipenem

Replace ceftazidime for ceftriaxone

Continue same antibiotic but at higher dose

None

26.

Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is:

Inhibits cell membrane synthesis

Inhibits protein synthesis

Inhibits DNA gyrase

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

Interferes with intermediary metabolism

None

27.

Erythromycin is drug of choice for treatment of diarrhea in children caused by:

Campylobacter jejuni

Staph. aureus

Vibrio cholerae

Giardia lamblia

None

28.

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis is:

Rifampicin

Penicillin

Erythromycin

Septran

None

29.

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of acute bacterial meningitis?

Ceftriaxone

Erythromycin

Streptomycin

Sulfamethoxazole

None

30.

A 68-year-old man presents from a nursing home with fever, increased urinary frequency and urgency, and mental status changes. He has a penicillin allergy of anaphylaxis. Which of the following β-lactams is the most appropriate choice for gram-negative coverage of this patient’s urinary tract infection?

Ertapenem

Ceftaroline

Aztreonam

Cefepime

None

31.

A child was admitted to the hospital with H. influenza meningitis. Cefotaxime is preferred over ampicillin because:

Cefotaxime is more active against beta-lactamase producing strains

Cefotaxime is more active against H influenza having altered penicillin binding proteins

Cefotaxime is cidal drug whereas ampicillin is bacterostatic

Cefotaxime has more oral bioavailability

None

32.

A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the probable cause?

Kawasaki’s disease

Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

Infectious mononucleosis

Acute intermittent porphyria

None

33.

Ciprofloxacin should not be given to an asthmatic using theophylline because:

Ciprofloxacin decreases effect of theophylline

Ciprofloxacin inhibits theophylline metabolism

Theophylline inhibits ciprofloxacin metabolism

Theophylline induces metabolism of ciprofloxacin

None

34.

Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?

Cephalexin

Piperacillin

Cloxacillin

Dicloxacillin

None

1 out of 34

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibiotics and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIVIRAL AND ANTIFUNGAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral and antifungal drugs:

Which of the following has poorest oral bioavailability?

Amantadine

Zanamivir

Rimantidine

Oseltamivir

None

Drugs that can be used to treat candida infection are all EXCEPT:

Nystatin

Griseofulvin

Amphotericin

Ketoconazole

None

Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is:

Didanosine

Stavudine

Lamivudine

Zidovudine

None

Liposomal amphotericin B has the following advantage over conventional amphotericin B:

Lesser cost

Lesser nephrotoxicity

Once a week administration

Absence of infusional toxicity

None

Drug of choice for herpes simplex virus infection is:

Ribavarin

Indinavir

Zidovudine

Acyclovir

None

The drug used to treat acyclovir resistant Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infection is:

Foscarnet

Valacyclovir

Abacavir

Ganciclovir

None

Which of the following anti-metabolites act as an antifungal agent?

Chlorambucil

5-Flucytosine (5 FC)

Paclitaxel

Decarbazine

None

Mechanism of action of protease inhibitors is:

Causes apoptosis of the affected cells

Prevents translation of viral RNA

Inhibits proviral RNA synthesis

Prevents maturation of new viral particles

None

Enfuvirtide belongs to the class of:

Fusion inhibitors

Gp 120 inhibitors

Protease inhibitors

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

None

10.

All of the following are common adverse effects of HAART therapy except:

Lipodytrophy

Optic neuritis

Steatosis

Increased cholesterol

None

11.

Drug of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis is:

Amantadine

Vidarabine

Interferon

Acyclovir

None

12.

A person is being treated for Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects is:

Didanosine

Efavirenz

Raltegravir

Ritonavir

None

13.

The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:

5-Flucytosine

Fluconazole

Griseofulvin

Amphotericin B

None

14.

Pancreatitis is a common complication of which one of the following:

Didanosine

Zidovudine

Zalcitabine

Stavudine

None

15.

Mechanism of action of oseltamivir is:

Apoptosis of respiratory epithelial cells

Neuraminidase inhibitor

Blocks M2 protein

Block DNA dependent RNA polymerase

None

16.

Treatment of choice for coccidiodomycosis is:

Griseofulvin

Fluconazole

Flucytosine

Amphotericin

None

17.

Which of the following drugs is used to prevent HIV transmission from an HIV positive pregnant mother to child? (AIIMS Nov. 2011)

Stavudine

Didanosine

Nevirapine

Lamivudine

None

18.

Which drug would treat both dermatophytosis and candidal infections?

Tolnaftate

Griseofulvin

Nystatin

Ketoconazole

None

19.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex keratitis is:

Interferon

Acyclovir

Amantadine

Ganciclovir

None

20.

Which of the following is oral drug for treatment of hepatitis C?

Ribamivir

Peg-interferon

Lamivudine

Ledipasvir

None

21.

Which of the following is most common side effect of zidovudine?

Peripheral neuropathy

Lactic acidosis

Anemia

None

22.

Following drugs act against HIV-2 except:

Efavirenz

Tenofovir

Ritonavir

Zalcitabine

None

23.

Mechanism of action of terbinafine is?

Binds to ergosterol

Prevents formation of purine

Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis

Inhition of microtubule formation

None

24.

Amphotericin B toxicity can be reduced by?

Combining with flucytosine

Incorporating it in liposomal complex

Injecting the drug with dextrose

Combining with fluconazole

None

25.

The minimum period required for post-exposure chemoprophylaxis for HIV is:

4 weeks

12 weeks

6 weeks

8 weeks

None

26.

Drug of choice for acyclovir resistant herpes is:

Gancyclovir

Valacyclovir

Foscarnet

Cidofovir

None

27.

A diabetic patient presents with fungal infection of sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual impairment. The best drug for treatment of this patient is:

Broad spectrum antibiotics

Itraconazole

Ketoconazole

Amphotericin B

None

28.

Drug of choice for chronic hepatitis –B is:

Ribavirin

IFN-alpha

Zidovudine

Lamivudine

None

1 out of 28

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral Drugs & Antifungal Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIMALARIAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs:

Which one of the following drug may be used for prevention of relapse of P. vivax infection:

Atovaquone

Chloroquine

Primaquine

Tetracycline

None

Which of the following can cause hypoglycemia in a patient of severe cerebral malaria on treatment?

Quinine

Halofantrine

Mefloquine

Chloroquine

None

Drug of choice in a patient with severe complicated falciparum malaria is:

Chloroquine

Artemether

Quinine

Artesunate

None

Drug of choice for chloroquine resistant malaria in pregnancy is:

Artemisinin

Quinine

Sulphadoxine + pyrimethamine

Mefloquine

None

The development of resistance to conventional treatment has led WHO to recommend the use of combination therapies containing artemisinin derivative (artemisinin-based combination therapies also known as ACTs). All of the following combination therapies are recommended if such resistance is suspected, except:

Artesunate plus quinine

Artemether plus lumefantrine

Artesunate plus mefloquine

Artesunate plus pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine

None

Drug of choice for treatment of malaria due to P. vivax in a 25 year old pregnant female is:

Primaquine

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine

Quinine

Chloroquine

None

First line drug for falciparum malaria in pregnancy is:

Tetracycline

Primaquine

Quinine

Chloroquine

None

Chemoprophylaxis in an Englishman visiting chloroquine and mefloquine resistant malaria region is done with:

Amodiaquine

Hydroxychloroquine

Doxycycline

Primaquine

None

Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax is by:

Primaquine

Tetracycline

Chloroquine

Artesunate

None

10.

Absorption of which of the following anti-malarial drug increases with food intake?

Lumefantrine

Chloroquine

Amodiaquine

Mefloquine

None

11.

Drug of choice for the treatment of a pregnant woman with P vivax malaria is:

Artemether

Quinine

Chloroquine

Paracetamol

None

12.

Which antimalarial drug is known to cause neuropsychiatric adverse reaction?

Artimisnin

Quinine

Artesunate

Mefloquine

None

13.

Tissue schizontocide which prevents relapse of vivax malaria is:

Chloroquine

Primaquine

Pyrimethamine

Quinine

None

14.

Radical cure is required for malaria caused by:

P. falciparum and P. malariae

P. vivax and P. ovale

P. vivax and P. malariae

P. falciparum and P. vivax

None

15.

Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria in children?

Chloroquine

Tetracycline

Clindamycin

Doxycycline

None

16.

Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria is:

Quinine

Chloroquine

Primaquine

Pyrimethamine

None

17.

Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P. falciparum as well as P. vivax:

Proguanil

Mefloquine

Quinine

Artesunate

None

18.

Chloroquine is given as 600 mg loading dose because:

It is rapidly eliminated

It is rapidly metabolized

It is rapidly absorbed

It has increased tissue binding

None

19.

Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is safe for use in pregnancy?

Primaquine

Atovaquone

Proguanil

Tetracycline

None

20.

Which of the following antimalarial drugs is a slow acting schizonticide?

Artemether

Quinine

Pyrimethamine

Mefloquine

None

1 out of 20

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIPROTOZOAL AND ANTIHELMINTHIC DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy: Antiprotozoal and antihelminthic drugs:

Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis?

Diethyl carbamazine

Ivermectin

Praziquantel

Albendazole

None

Drug commonly used in the treatment of echinococosis is:

Ivermectin

Pyrental prermeated

Metronidazole

Albendazole

None

Which of the following drug causes flaccid paralysis of ascaris?

Ivermectin

Albendazole

Piperazine

Pyrantel pamoate

None

DEC (Di-ethyl-carbamazine) is used for the treatment of:

Taeniasis

Dracunculiasis

Filariasis

Schistosomiasis

None

Disulfiram like interaction with alcohol is seen with all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Cefoperazone

Satranidazole

Griseofulvin

Metronidazole

None

Amphotericin B produce antifungal action by acting on:

Cell wall

Ribosome

Nucleic acid

Cell membrane

None

All of these are used in the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis except:

Hydroxychloroquine

Miltefosine

Sitamaquine

Paromomycin

None

Drug of choice for hookworm infestation is:

Bephenium hydroxynaphthoate

Piperazine citrate

Mebendazole

Albendazole

None

Ivermectin is used for the treatment of:

Teniasis

Hookworm infestation

Filariasis

Ascariasis

None

10.

A female presented with frothy, greenish vaginal discharge with a musty smell. On examination ‘strawberry vagina’ was noted. A diagnosis of trichomonas vaginalis was made. Drug of choice is:

Fluconazole

Erythromycin

Metronidazole

Tetracycline

None

11.

Bull’s eye retinopathy is seen in:

Methanol

Ethambutol

Steroids

Chloroquine

None

12.

Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by:

Permethrin

Contrimoxazole

Ivermectin

Psoralens

None

13.

Drug of choice for kala-azar is:

Sodium stibogluconate

Amphotericin B

Penicillin

Pentamidine

None

14.

Round worm infection is best treated with:

Mebendazole

Metronidazole

Pyrantel pamoate

Albendazol

None

15.

Metronidazole is effective in all of the following conditions except:

Neurocysticercosis

Pseudomembranous colitis

Amebic liver abscess

Giardiasis

None

16.

Drug of choice for neurocysticercosis is:

Piperazine

Levamisole

Praziquantel

Albendazole

None

17.

Drug of choice for medical treatment of hydatid cyst of liver is:

Ivermectin

Thiabendazole

Albendazole

Praziquantel

None

18.

The drug of choice for schistosomiasis is:

Metronidazole

Albendazole

Praziquantel

Triclabendazole

None

19.

Albendazole is effective against all of the following except:

Tapeworm

Roundworm

Hookworm

Pinworm

None

1 out of 19

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiprotozoal & antihelminthic drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

Disclaimer: This article is for informational purposes only and does not constitute medical advice. Always seek the advice of a healthcare provider with any questions regarding a medical condition.

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