Antimicrobial chemotherapy - Quizzes| Pharmacology Mentor

ANTIBACTERIALS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibacterials:

Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

Penicillin

Chloramphenicol

Erythromycin

Gentamicin

Tetracicline

None

Ciprofloxacin should not be given to an asthmatic using theophylline because:

Ciprofloxacin decreases effect of theophylline

Ciprofloxacin inhibits theophylline metabolism

Theophylline induces metabolism of ciprofloxacin

Theophylline inhibits ciprofloxacin metabolism

None

Erythromycin is drug of choice for treatment of diarrhea in children caused by:

Campylobacter jejuni

Vibrio cholerae

Staph. aureus

Giardia lamblia

None

Drug of choice for antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis is:

Metronidazole

Oral vancomycin

Clindamycin

Penicillin G

None

Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is:

Inhibits DNA gyrase

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

Inhibits cell membrane synthesis

Inhibits protein synthesis

Interferes with intermediary metabolism

None

A 23-year-old man was started on standard four-drug antimycobacterial therapy for treatment of active TB. He has epilepsy, which is controlled with carbamazepine. He has had no seizures in 5 years; however, upon return to clinic at 1 month, he reports having two seizures since his last visit. Which drug may be the reason his carbamazepine is less effective?

Isoniazid

Ethambutol

Pyrazinamide

Rifampin

None

After 5 days of clindamycin treatment for a skin infection, a patient develops diarrhea (10 watery stools/day), severe abdominal pain, and fever. Which of the following organisms would you be concerned about as the causative pathogen of diarrhea?

Escherichia coli

Bacteroides fragilis C.

Clostridium difficile

Staphylococcus aureus

None

A 68-year-old man presents from a nursing home with fever, increased urinary frequency and urgency, and mental status changes. He has a penicillin allergy of anaphylaxis. Which of the following β-lactams is the most appropriate choice for gram-negative coverage of this patient’s urinary tract infection?

Ceftaroline

Cefepime

Aztreonam

Ertapenem

None

Linezolid is best used for:

VRSA

E.coli

MRSA

K.pneumoniae

None

10.

Which of the following aminoglycosides has highest nephrotoxicity?

Paramomycin

Amikacin

Streptomycin

Neomycin

None

11.

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Inhibition of DNA gyrase

Leakage from cell membrane

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Inhibition of protein synthesis

None

12.

Empirical treatment for meningococcal meningitis is:

Ceftriaxone

Cefotetan

Cefoxitin

Gentamicin

None

13.

A 26 year old patient presents with suspected pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic should be given till culture sensitivity result come?

Ceftriaxone + metronidazole

Doxycycline

Cefotaxime + vancomycin

Penicillin

None

14.

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur after limited exposure to some antimicrobial drug is called:

Time dependent killing

Bactericidal effect

Concentration dependent killing

Post-antibiotic effect

Sequential blockade

None

15.

A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the probable cause?

Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

Infectious mononucleosis

Acute intermittent porphyria

Kawasaki’s disease

None

16.

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of acute bacterial meningitis?

Sulfamethoxazole

Erythromycin

Streptomycin

Ceftriaxone

None

17.

Single dose aminoglycoside administration is more preferable than 8 hourly dose because of:

Increase perfusion of renal cortex

MIC

Post-antibiotic effect

Toxicity

MBC

None

18.

A post operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which of the following is the most likely combination that was given?

Cephalexin and gentamicin

Ampicillin and chloramphenicol

Ciprofloxacin and piperacillin

Vancomycin and amikacin

None

19.

Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis?

Dapsone

Ethambutol

Monobactams

Streptomycin

Bacitracin

None

20.

A 21-year-old marathon runner reports to the clinic with acute Achilles tendon rupture. The nurse noted that the patient recently took an antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia. Which antibiotic may have contributed to tendon rupture?

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

Minocycline

Cefdinir

Levofloxacin

None

21.

Drug of choice for acute meningococcal pyogenic meningitis is:

Chloramphenicol

Crystalline penicillin

Amoxycillin

Sulphonamides

None

22.

Redman syndrome is due to:

Vancomycin

Polymyxin

Teicoplanin

Rifampicin

Erythromycin

None

23.

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in immunocompromised patients is:

Amoxycillin

Cotrimoxazole

Dexamethasone

Cefotetan

None

24.

Treatment of choice for chancroid is:

Erythromycin

Penicillin

Tetracyclines

Chloramphenicol

None

25.

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis is:

Erythromycin

Penicillin

Septran

Rifampicin

None

26.

A patient diagnosed as having ventilator associated pneumonia, is on treatment with ceftriaxone and amikacin. Culture and sensitivity turned out to be positive for ESBL producing Klebsiella infection. The most appropriate next action should be:

Continue same antibiotic but at higher dose

Remove amikacin and add quinolone

Replace ceftazidime for ceftriaxone

Change over to imipenem

None

27.

A potent inhibitor of beta-lactamase is:

Idoxuridine

Amoxicillin

Clavulanic acid

Carbenicillin

Cefamandole

None

28.

A child was admitted to the hospital with H. influenza meningitis. Cefotaxime is preferred over ampicillin because:

Cefotaxime is more active against H influenza having altered penicillin binding proteins

Cefotaxime has more oral bioavailability

Cefotaxime is more active against beta-lactamase producing strains

Cefotaxime is cidal drug whereas ampicillin is bacterostatic

None

29.

Drug of choice for sore throat caused by Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus is:

Penicillin

Ceftriaxone

Sulfonamides

Erythromycin

None

30.

Which of the following adverse effects is often employed as a therapeutic use for erythromycin?

Deposition in bone

Increased gastrointestinal motility

Photosensitivity

QTc prolongation

None

31.

In the given below figure at which site does penicillinase work?

Site C

Site B

Site A

Site D

None

32.

Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?

Cephalexin

Piperacillin

Cloxacillin

Dicloxacillin

None

33.

This bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor is used for management of abdominal abcess caused by Bacteroides fragilis. Antibiotic associated colitis commonly occurs with use of this drug. Which of the following drug is being described?

Ticarcillin

Clindamycin

Minocycline

Clarithromycin

None

34.

Which of the following should be monitored if linezolid is given for more than 14 days?

Audiometry

Liver function tests

Platelet count

Kidney function test

None

1 out of 34

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibiotics and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIVIRAL AND ANTIFUNGAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral and antifungal drugs:

Liposomal amphotericin B has the following advantage over conventional amphotericin B:

Absence of infusional toxicity

Once a week administration

Lesser nephrotoxicity

Lesser cost

None

Drug of choice for acyclovir resistant herpes is:

Foscarnet

Cidofovir

Valacyclovir

Gancyclovir

None

Treatment of choice for coccidiodomycosis is:

Fluconazole

Amphotericin

Flucytosine

Griseofulvin

None

Mechanism of action of terbinafine is?

Binds to ergosterol

Inhition of microtubule formation

Prevents formation of purine

Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis

None

Drugs that can be used to treat candida infection are all EXCEPT:

Nystatin

Ketoconazole

Amphotericin

Griseofulvin

None

All of the following are common adverse effects of HAART therapy except:

Optic neuritis

Steatosis

Lipodytrophy

Increased cholesterol

None

Mechanism of action of oseltamivir is:

Neuraminidase inhibitor

Apoptosis of respiratory epithelial cells

Block DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Blocks M2 protein

None

Which of the following anti-metabolites act as an antifungal agent?

Paclitaxel

5-Flucytosine (5 FC)

Chlorambucil

Decarbazine

None

Following drugs act against HIV-2 except:

Zalcitabine

Efavirenz

Tenofovir

Ritonavir

None

10.

A person is being treated for Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects is:

Didanosine

Ritonavir

Raltegravir

Efavirenz

None

11.

Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is:

Lamivudine

Didanosine

Stavudine

Zidovudine

None

12.

Which drug would treat both dermatophytosis and candidal infections?

Griseofulvin

Ketoconazole

Nystatin

Tolnaftate

None

13.

The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:

5-Flucytosine

Fluconazole

Amphotericin B

Griseofulvin

None

14.

Mechanism of action of protease inhibitors is:

Causes apoptosis of the affected cells

Inhibits proviral RNA synthesis

Prevents translation of viral RNA

Prevents maturation of new viral particles

None

15.

Amphotericin B toxicity can be reduced by?

Incorporating it in liposomal complex

Injecting the drug with dextrose

Combining with fluconazole

Combining with flucytosine

None

16.

Drug of choice for chronic hepatitis –B is:

Lamivudine

Ribavirin

Zidovudine

IFN-alpha

None

17.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex virus infection is:

Indinavir

Zidovudine

Acyclovir

Ribavarin

None

18.

Which of the following drugs is used to prevent HIV transmission from an HIV positive pregnant mother to child? (AIIMS Nov. 2011)

Nevirapine

Didanosine

Stavudine

Lamivudine

None

19.

Drug of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis is:

Interferon

Vidarabine

Amantadine

Acyclovir

None

20.

The drug used to treat acyclovir resistant Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infection is:

Abacavir

Foscarnet

Valacyclovir

Ganciclovir

None

21.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex keratitis is:

Ganciclovir

Amantadine

Acyclovir

Interferon

None

22.

Which of the following has poorest oral bioavailability?

Oseltamivir

Amantadine

Zanamivir

Rimantidine

None

23.

The minimum period required for post-exposure chemoprophylaxis for HIV is:

6 weeks

12 weeks

4 weeks

8 weeks

None

24.

Enfuvirtide belongs to the class of:

Gp 120 inhibitors

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Fusion inhibitors

Protease inhibitors

None

25.

Pancreatitis is a common complication of which one of the following:

Stavudine

Didanosine

Zalcitabine

Zidovudine

None

26.

A diabetic patient presents with fungal infection of sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual impairment. The best drug for treatment of this patient is:

Amphotericin B

Ketoconazole

Broad spectrum antibiotics

Itraconazole

None

27.

Which of the following is oral drug for treatment of hepatitis C?

Peg-interferon

Lamivudine

Ribamivir

Ledipasvir

None

28.

Which of the following is most common side effect of zidovudine?

Lactic acidosis

Peripheral neuropathy

Anemia

None

1 out of 28

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral Drugs & Antifungal Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIMALARIAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs:

Which antimalarial drug is known to cause neuropsychiatric adverse reaction?

Mefloquine

Quinine

Artesunate

Artimisnin

None

Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria in children?

Doxycycline

Tetracycline

Chloroquine

Clindamycin

None

Drug of choice for treatment of malaria due to P. vivax in a 25 year old pregnant female is:

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine

Primaquine

Chloroquine

Quinine

None

Tissue schizontocide which prevents relapse of vivax malaria is:

Chloroquine

Quinine

Pyrimethamine

Primaquine

None

The development of resistance to conventional treatment has led WHO to recommend the use of combination therapies containing artemisinin derivative (artemisinin-based combination therapies also known as ACTs). All of the following combination therapies are recommended if such resistance is suspected, except:

Artesunate plus quinine

Artemether plus lumefantrine

Artesunate plus mefloquine

Artesunate plus pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine

None

Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is safe for use in pregnancy?

Proguanil

Primaquine

Tetracycline

Atovaquone

None

Drug of choice in a patient with severe complicated falciparum malaria is:

Artemether

Artesunate

Chloroquine

Quinine

None

Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax is by:

Artesunate

Tetracycline

Chloroquine

Primaquine

None

Which of the following antimalarial drugs is a slow acting schizonticide?

Mefloquine

Quinine

Pyrimethamine

Artemether

None

10.

Radical cure is required for malaria caused by:

P. vivax and P. malariae

P. vivax and P. ovale

P. falciparum and P. malariae

P. falciparum and P. vivax

None

11.

Drug of choice for chloroquine resistant malaria in pregnancy is:

Sulphadoxine + pyrimethamine

Quinine

Artemisinin

Mefloquine

None

12.

Chemoprophylaxis in an Englishman visiting chloroquine and mefloquine resistant malaria region is done with:

Hydroxychloroquine

Primaquine

Doxycycline

Amodiaquine

None

13.

Which of the following can cause hypoglycemia in a patient of severe cerebral malaria on treatment?

Quinine

Mefloquine

Halofantrine

Chloroquine

None

14.

Absorption of which of the following anti-malarial drug increases with food intake?

Amodiaquine

Chloroquine

Mefloquine

Lumefantrine

None

15.

Chloroquine is given as 600 mg loading dose because:

It is rapidly metabolized

It is rapidly absorbed

It has increased tissue binding

It is rapidly eliminated

None

16.

Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria is:

Primaquine

Chloroquine

Pyrimethamine

Quinine

None

17.

Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P. falciparum as well as P. vivax:

Quinine

Proguanil

Artesunate

Mefloquine

None

18.

Which one of the following drug may be used for prevention of relapse of P. vivax infection:

Chloroquine

Atovaquone

Primaquine

Tetracycline

None

19.

Drug of choice for the treatment of a pregnant woman with P vivax malaria is:

Artemether

Paracetamol

Quinine

Chloroquine

None

20.

First line drug for falciparum malaria in pregnancy is:

Primaquine

Tetracycline

Quinine

Chloroquine

None

1 out of 20

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIPROTOZOAL AND ANTIHELMINTHIC DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy: Antiprotozoal and antihelminthic drugs:

Drug of choice for kala-azar is:

Sodium stibogluconate

Amphotericin B

Penicillin

Pentamidine

None

Drug of choice for neurocysticercosis is:

Piperazine

Levamisole

Praziquantel

Albendazole

None

Round worm infection is best treated with:

Albendazol

Metronidazole

Mebendazole

Pyrantel pamoate

None

A female presented with frothy, greenish vaginal discharge with a musty smell. On examination ‘strawberry vagina’ was noted. A diagnosis of trichomonas vaginalis was made. Drug of choice is:

Fluconazole

Erythromycin

Metronidazole

Tetracycline

None

Ivermectin is used for the treatment of:

Teniasis

Ascariasis

Hookworm infestation

Filariasis

None

The drug of choice for schistosomiasis is:

Albendazole

Triclabendazole

Praziquantel

Metronidazole

None

Drug of choice for hookworm infestation is:

Piperazine citrate

Albendazole

Bephenium hydroxynaphthoate

Mebendazole

None

Metronidazole is effective in all of the following conditions except:

Neurocysticercosis

Amebic liver abscess

Pseudomembranous colitis

Giardiasis

None

Bull’s eye retinopathy is seen in:

Methanol

Chloroquine

Steroids

Ethambutol

None

10.

Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis?

Praziquantel

Ivermectin

Diethyl carbamazine

Albendazole

None

11.

Which of the following drug causes flaccid paralysis of ascaris?

Pyrantel pamoate

Piperazine

Albendazole

Ivermectin

None

12.

Albendazole is effective against all of the following except:

Roundworm

Tapeworm

Pinworm

Hookworm

None

13.

Disulfiram like interaction with alcohol is seen with all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Cefoperazone

Satranidazole

Griseofulvin

Metronidazole

None

14.

Amphotericin B produce antifungal action by acting on:

Cell membrane

Ribosome

Cell wall

Nucleic acid

None

15.

All of these are used in the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis except:

Sitamaquine

Hydroxychloroquine

Paromomycin

Miltefosine

None

16.

DEC (Di-ethyl-carbamazine) is used for the treatment of:

Taeniasis

Schistosomiasis

Filariasis

Dracunculiasis

None

17.

Drug of choice for medical treatment of hydatid cyst of liver is:

Thiabendazole

Albendazole

Ivermectin

Praziquantel

None

18.

Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by:

Permethrin

Ivermectin

Contrimoxazole

Psoralens

None

19.

Drug commonly used in the treatment of echinococosis is:

Pyrental prermeated

Metronidazole

Ivermectin

Albendazole

None

1 out of 19

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiprotozoal & antihelminthic drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

Disclaimer: This article is for informational purposes only and does not constitute medical advice. Always seek the advice of a healthcare provider with any questions regarding a medical condition.

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