Antimicrobial chemotherapy - Quizzes| Pharmacology Mentor

antimicrobial

ANTIBACTERIALS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibacterials:

Erythromycin is drug of choice for treatment of diarrhea in children caused by:

Giardia lamblia

Vibrio cholerae

Campylobacter jejuni

Staph. aureus

Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?

Dicloxacillin

Cloxacillin

Piperacillin

Cephalexin

A patient diagnosed as having ventilator associated pneumonia, is on treatment with ceftriaxone and amikacin. Culture and sensitivity turned out to be positive for ESBL producing Klebsiella infection. The most appropriate next action should be:

Change over to imipenem

Replace ceftazidime for ceftriaxone

Continue same antibiotic but at higher dose

Remove amikacin and add quinolone

Empirical treatment for meningococcal meningitis is:

Ceftriaxone

Cefoxitin

Cefotetan

Gentamicin

Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is:

Inhibits cell membrane synthesis

Inhibits protein synthesis

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

Interferes with intermediary metabolism

Inhibits DNA gyrase

Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis?

Streptomycin

Ethambutol

Bacitracin

Monobactams

Dapsone

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis is:

Septran

Penicillin

Rifampicin

Erythromycin

Treatment of choice for chancroid is:

Chloramphenicol

Erythromycin

Tetracyclines

Penicillin

After 5 days of clindamycin treatment for a skin infection, a patient develops diarrhea (10 watery stools/day), severe abdominal pain, and fever. Which of the following organisms would you be concerned about as the causative pathogen of diarrhea?

Staphylococcus aureus

Escherichia coli

Bacteroides fragilis C.

Clostridium difficile

10.

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Inhibition of DNA gyrase

Leakage from cell membrane

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Inhibition of protein synthesis

11.

Which of the following should be monitored if linezolid is given for more than 14 days?

Liver function tests

Platelet count

Audiometry

Kidney function test

12.

A post operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which of the following is the most likely combination that was given?

Ciprofloxacin and piperacillin

Vancomycin and amikacin

Cephalexin and gentamicin

Ampicillin and chloramphenicol

13.

A 21-year-old marathon runner reports to the clinic with acute Achilles tendon rupture. The nurse noted that the patient recently took an antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia. Which antibiotic may have contributed to tendon rupture?

Cefdinir

Minocycline

Levofloxacin

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

14.

Ciprofloxacin should not be given to an asthmatic using theophylline because:

Theophylline inhibits ciprofloxacin metabolism

Ciprofloxacin inhibits theophylline metabolism

Theophylline induces metabolism of ciprofloxacin

Ciprofloxacin decreases effect of theophylline

15.

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in immunocompromised patients is:

Amoxycillin

Cotrimoxazole

Cefotetan

Dexamethasone

16.

A child was admitted to the hospital with H. influenza meningitis. Cefotaxime is preferred over ampicillin because:

Cefotaxime has more oral bioavailability

Cefotaxime is more active against H influenza having altered penicillin binding proteins

Cefotaxime is cidal drug whereas ampicillin is bacterostatic

Cefotaxime is more active against beta-lactamase producing strains

17.

This bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor is used for management of abdominal abcess caused by Bacteroides fragilis. Antibiotic associated colitis commonly occurs with use of this drug. Which of the following drug is being described?

Clindamycin

Minocycline

Clarithromycin

Ticarcillin

18.

Which of the following adverse effects is often employed as a therapeutic use for erythromycin?

Deposition in bone

Increased gastrointestinal motility

QTc prolongation

Photosensitivity

19.

A 68-year-old man presents from a nursing home with fever, increased urinary frequency and urgency, and mental status changes. He has a penicillin allergy of anaphylaxis. Which of the following β-lactams is the most appropriate choice for gram-negative coverage of this patient’s urinary tract infection?

Ceftaroline

Cefepime

Aztreonam

Ertapenem

20.

A 26 year old patient presents with suspected pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic should be given till culture sensitivity result come?

Penicillin

Ceftriaxone + metronidazole

Doxycycline

Cefotaxime + vancomycin

21.

Drug of choice for acute meningococcal pyogenic meningitis is:

Amoxycillin

Sulphonamides

Crystalline penicillin

Chloramphenicol

22.

A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the probable cause?

Kawasaki’s disease

Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

Acute intermittent porphyria

Infectious mononucleosis

23.

Single dose aminoglycoside administration is more preferable than 8 hourly dose because of:

Post-antibiotic effect

MIC

Increase perfusion of renal cortex

MBC

Toxicity

24.

Linezolid is best used for:

VRSA

K.pneumoniae

E.coli

MRSA

25.

Drug of choice for sore throat caused by Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus is:

Ceftriaxone

Sulfonamides

Erythromycin

Penicillin

26.

A 23-year-old man was started on standard four-drug antimycobacterial therapy for treatment of active TB. He has epilepsy, which is controlled with carbamazepine. He has had no seizures in 5 years; however, upon return to clinic at 1 month, he reports having two seizures since his last visit. Which drug may be the reason his carbamazepine is less effective?

Rifampin

Pyrazinamide

Isoniazid

Ethambutol

27.

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur after limited exposure to some antimicrobial drug is called:

Concentration dependent killing

Sequential blockade

Post-antibiotic effect

Time dependent killing

Bactericidal effect

28.

In the given below figure at which site does penicillinase work?

Site A

Site C

Site D

Site B

29.

Drug of choice for antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis is:

Clindamycin

Oral vancomycin

Penicillin G

Metronidazole

30.

Which of the following aminoglycosides has highest nephrotoxicity?

Streptomycin

Paramomycin

Neomycin

Amikacin

31.

A potent inhibitor of beta-lactamase is:

Carbenicillin

Idoxuridine

Clavulanic acid

Amoxicillin

Cefamandole

32.

Redman syndrome is due to:

Polymyxin

Vancomycin

Rifampicin

Erythromycin

Teicoplanin

33.

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of acute bacterial meningitis?

Ceftriaxone

Sulfamethoxazole

Erythromycin

Streptomycin

34.

Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

Tetracicline

Chloramphenicol

Erythromycin

Gentamicin

Penicillin

1 out of 34

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibiotics and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIVIRAL AND ANTIFUNGAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral and antifungal drugs:

Mechanism of action of oseltamivir is:

Block DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Apoptosis of respiratory epithelial cells

Neuraminidase inhibitor

Blocks M2 protein

Treatment of choice for coccidiodomycosis is:

Amphotericin

Flucytosine

Griseofulvin

Fluconazole

A person is being treated for Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects is:

Didanosine

Efavirenz

Ritonavir

Raltegravir

Which of the following is oral drug for treatment of hepatitis C?

Ribamivir

Lamivudine

Peg-interferon

Ledipasvir

Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is:

Stavudine

Zidovudine

Lamivudine

Didanosine

A diabetic patient presents with fungal infection of sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual impairment. The best drug for treatment of this patient is:

Amphotericin B

Ketoconazole

Itraconazole

Broad spectrum antibiotics

Which of the following is most common side effect of zidovudine?

Peripheral neuropathy

Anemia

Lactic acidosis

Which of the following anti-metabolites act as an antifungal agent?

Decarbazine

Chlorambucil

Paclitaxel

5-Flucytosine (5 FC)

Drug of choice for herpes simplex virus infection is:

Acyclovir

Ribavarin

Indinavir

Zidovudine

10.

Drug of choice for chronic hepatitis –B is:

Lamivudine

Ribavirin

IFN-alpha

Zidovudine

11.

All of the following are common adverse effects of HAART therapy except:

Lipodytrophy

Optic neuritis

Steatosis

Increased cholesterol

12.

Which drug would treat both dermatophytosis and candidal infections?

Griseofulvin

Tolnaftate

Nystatin

Ketoconazole

13.

Drug of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis is:

Vidarabine

Interferon

Acyclovir

Amantadine

14.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex keratitis is:

Acyclovir

Interferon

Ganciclovir

Amantadine

15.

Following drugs act against HIV-2 except:

Ritonavir

Zalcitabine

Efavirenz

Tenofovir

16.

Mechanism of action of protease inhibitors is:

Prevents maturation of new viral particles

Causes apoptosis of the affected cells

Inhibits proviral RNA synthesis

Prevents translation of viral RNA

17.

Pancreatitis is a common complication of which one of the following:

Zidovudine

Zalcitabine

Didanosine

Stavudine

18.

The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:

Griseofulvin

5-Flucytosine

Fluconazole

Amphotericin B

19.

Enfuvirtide belongs to the class of:

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Protease inhibitors

Fusion inhibitors

Gp 120 inhibitors

20.

The drug used to treat acyclovir resistant Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infection is:

Valacyclovir

Ganciclovir

Foscarnet

Abacavir

21.

Drugs that can be used to treat candida infection are all EXCEPT:

Griseofulvin

Ketoconazole

Nystatin

Amphotericin

22.

Which of the following has poorest oral bioavailability?

Zanamivir

Amantadine

Rimantidine

Oseltamivir

23.

The minimum period required for post-exposure chemoprophylaxis for HIV is:

12 weeks

4 weeks

6 weeks

8 weeks

24.

Mechanism of action of terbinafine is?

Inhition of microtubule formation

Prevents formation of purine

Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis

Binds to ergosterol

25.

Drug of choice for acyclovir resistant herpes is:

Valacyclovir

Gancyclovir

Foscarnet

Cidofovir

26.

Liposomal amphotericin B has the following advantage over conventional amphotericin B:

Lesser nephrotoxicity

Once a week administration

Absence of infusional toxicity

Lesser cost

27.

Amphotericin B toxicity can be reduced by?

Combining with fluconazole

Injecting the drug with dextrose

Combining with flucytosine

Incorporating it in liposomal complex

28.

Which of the following drugs is used to prevent HIV transmission from an HIV positive pregnant mother to child? (AIIMS Nov. 2011)

Lamivudine

Stavudine

Didanosine

Nevirapine

1 out of 28

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral Drugs & Antifungal Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIMALARIAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs:

Absorption of which of the following anti-malarial drug increases with food intake?

Lumefantrine

Amodiaquine

Chloroquine

Mefloquine

Which antimalarial drug is known to cause neuropsychiatric adverse reaction?

Quinine

Artesunate

Mefloquine

Artimisnin

Chemoprophylaxis in an Englishman visiting chloroquine and mefloquine resistant malaria region is done with:

Amodiaquine

Hydroxychloroquine

Doxycycline

Primaquine

Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria in children?

Clindamycin

Tetracycline

Chloroquine

Doxycycline

Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax is by:

Tetracycline

Primaquine

Artesunate

Chloroquine

The development of resistance to conventional treatment has led WHO to recommend the use of combination therapies containing artemisinin derivative (artemisinin-based combination therapies also known as ACTs). All of the following combination therapies are recommended if such resistance is suspected, except:

Artesunate plus pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine

Artemether plus lumefantrine

Artesunate plus quinine

Artesunate plus mefloquine

Drug of choice for chloroquine resistant malaria in pregnancy is:

Artemisinin

Sulphadoxine + pyrimethamine

Quinine

Mefloquine

Drug of choice for the treatment of a pregnant woman with P vivax malaria is:

Chloroquine

Quinine

Artemether

Paracetamol

Tissue schizontocide which prevents relapse of vivax malaria is:

Pyrimethamine

Primaquine

Chloroquine

Quinine

10.

Drug of choice for treatment of malaria due to P. vivax in a 25 year old pregnant female is:

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine

Primaquine

Chloroquine

Quinine

11.

Which of the following can cause hypoglycemia in a patient of severe cerebral malaria on treatment?

Mefloquine

Halofantrine

Chloroquine

Quinine

12.

First line drug for falciparum malaria in pregnancy is:

Chloroquine

Tetracycline

Primaquine

Quinine

13.

Drug of choice in a patient with severe complicated falciparum malaria is:

Artemether

Quinine

Chloroquine

Artesunate

14.

Which one of the following drug may be used for prevention of relapse of P. vivax infection:

Atovaquone

Tetracycline

Primaquine

Chloroquine

15.

Radical cure is required for malaria caused by:

P. vivax and P. malariae

P. falciparum and P. vivax

P. falciparum and P. malariae

P. vivax and P. ovale

16.

Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P. falciparum as well as P. vivax:

Proguanil

Quinine

Artesunate

Mefloquine

17.

Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is safe for use in pregnancy?

Primaquine

Atovaquone

Tetracycline

Proguanil

18.

Which of the following antimalarial drugs is a slow acting schizonticide?

Mefloquine

Pyrimethamine

Artemether

Quinine

19.

Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria is:

Quinine

Pyrimethamine

Chloroquine

Primaquine

20.

Chloroquine is given as 600 mg loading dose because:

It is rapidly eliminated

It is rapidly absorbed

It is rapidly metabolized

It has increased tissue binding

1 out of 20

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIPROTOZOAL AND ANTIHELMINTHIC DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy: Antiprotozoal and antihelminthic drugs:

Round worm infection is best treated with:

Albendazol

Mebendazole

Metronidazole

Pyrantel pamoate

Ivermectin is used for the treatment of:

Hookworm infestation

Teniasis

Ascariasis

Filariasis

Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis?

Praziquantel

Diethyl carbamazine

Albendazole

Ivermectin

Drug of choice for neurocysticercosis is:

Levamisole

Praziquantel

Albendazole

Piperazine

Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by:

Psoralens

Ivermectin

Permethrin

Contrimoxazole

Drug of choice for hookworm infestation is:

Albendazole

Mebendazole

Bephenium hydroxynaphthoate

Piperazine citrate

Drug of choice for kala-azar is:

Pentamidine

Amphotericin B

Penicillin

Sodium stibogluconate

Which of the following drug causes flaccid paralysis of ascaris?

Ivermectin

Piperazine

Pyrantel pamoate

Albendazole

Amphotericin B produce antifungal action by acting on:

Nucleic acid

Cell membrane

Cell wall

Ribosome

10.

Albendazole is effective against all of the following except:

Pinworm

Tapeworm

Roundworm

Hookworm

11.

Metronidazole is effective in all of the following conditions except:

Neurocysticercosis

Giardiasis

Amebic liver abscess

Pseudomembranous colitis

12.

Disulfiram like interaction with alcohol is seen with all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Metronidazole

Cefoperazone

Griseofulvin

Satranidazole

13.

Drug of choice for medical treatment of hydatid cyst of liver is:

Albendazole

Thiabendazole

Ivermectin

Praziquantel

14.

DEC (Di-ethyl-carbamazine) is used for the treatment of:

Filariasis

Dracunculiasis

Taeniasis

Schistosomiasis

15.

A female presented with frothy, greenish vaginal discharge with a musty smell. On examination ‘strawberry vagina’ was noted. A diagnosis of trichomonas vaginalis was made. Drug of choice is:

Fluconazole

Tetracycline

Erythromycin

Metronidazole

16.

All of these are used in the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis except:

Sitamaquine

Hydroxychloroquine

Miltefosine

Paromomycin

17.

Bull’s eye retinopathy is seen in:

Ethambutol

Chloroquine

Methanol

Steroids

18.

The drug of choice for schistosomiasis is:

Triclabendazole

Albendazole

Praziquantel

Metronidazole

19.

Drug commonly used in the treatment of echinococosis is:

Metronidazole

Pyrental prermeated

Ivermectin

Albendazole

1 out of 19

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiprotozoal & antihelminthic drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

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Disclaimer: This article is for informational purposes only and does not constitute medical advice. Always seek the advice of a healthcare provider with any questions regarding a medical condition.

PRACTICE QUIZZES on antimicrobial chemotherapy

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