Antimicrobial chemotherapy - Quizzes| Pharmacology Mentor

ANTIBACTERIALS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibacterials:

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur after limited exposure to some antimicrobial drug is called:

Bactericidal effect

Post-antibiotic effect

Sequential blockade

Concentration dependent killing

Time dependent killing

None

A 23-year-old man was started on standard four-drug antimycobacterial therapy for treatment of active TB. He has epilepsy, which is controlled with carbamazepine. He has had no seizures in 5 years; however, upon return to clinic at 1 month, he reports having two seizures since his last visit. Which drug may be the reason his carbamazepine is less effective?

Pyrazinamide

Ethambutol

Rifampin

Isoniazid

None

Which of the following aminoglycosides has highest nephrotoxicity?

Neomycin

Amikacin

Paramomycin

Streptomycin

None

Erythromycin is drug of choice for treatment of diarrhea in children caused by:

Giardia lamblia

Vibrio cholerae

Staph. aureus

Campylobacter jejuni

None

Single dose aminoglycoside administration is more preferable than 8 hourly dose because of:

Toxicity

MIC

MBC

Increase perfusion of renal cortex

Post-antibiotic effect

None

A child was admitted to the hospital with H. influenza meningitis. Cefotaxime is preferred over ampicillin because:

Cefotaxime is cidal drug whereas ampicillin is bacterostatic

Cefotaxime is more active against beta-lactamase producing strains

Cefotaxime has more oral bioavailability

Cefotaxime is more active against H influenza having altered penicillin binding proteins

None

In the given below figure at which site does penicillinase work?

Site A

Site D

Site B

Site C

None

After 5 days of clindamycin treatment for a skin infection, a patient develops diarrhea (10 watery stools/day), severe abdominal pain, and fever. Which of the following organisms would you be concerned about as the causative pathogen of diarrhea?

Staphylococcus aureus

Escherichia coli

Bacteroides fragilis C.

Clostridium difficile

None

A potent inhibitor of beta-lactamase is:

Clavulanic acid

Amoxicillin

Idoxuridine

Carbenicillin

Cefamandole

None

10.

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Inhibition of protein synthesis

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Leakage from cell membrane

Inhibition of DNA gyrase

None

11.

A patient diagnosed as having ventilator associated pneumonia, is on treatment with ceftriaxone and amikacin. Culture and sensitivity turned out to be positive for ESBL producing Klebsiella infection. The most appropriate next action should be:

Continue same antibiotic but at higher dose

Change over to imipenem

Replace ceftazidime for ceftriaxone

Remove amikacin and add quinolone

None

12.

Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is:

Inhibits cell membrane synthesis

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

Inhibits DNA gyrase

Interferes with intermediary metabolism

Inhibits protein synthesis

None

13.

A 26 year old patient presents with suspected pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic should be given till culture sensitivity result come?

Penicillin

Ceftriaxone + metronidazole

Doxycycline

Cefotaxime + vancomycin

None

14.

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis is:

Penicillin

Septran

Erythromycin

Rifampicin

None

15.

Empirical treatment for meningococcal meningitis is:

Cefotetan

Gentamicin

Cefoxitin

Ceftriaxone

None

16.

This bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor is used for management of abdominal abcess caused by Bacteroides fragilis. Antibiotic associated colitis commonly occurs with use of this drug. Which of the following drug is being described?

Ticarcillin

Minocycline

Clindamycin

Clarithromycin

None

17.

Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis?

Ethambutol

Monobactams

Bacitracin

Streptomycin

Dapsone

None

18.

A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the probable cause?

Acute intermittent porphyria

Kawasaki’s disease

Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

Infectious mononucleosis

None

19.

A 21-year-old marathon runner reports to the clinic with acute Achilles tendon rupture. The nurse noted that the patient recently took an antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia. Which antibiotic may have contributed to tendon rupture?

Minocycline

Cefdinir

Levofloxacin

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

None

20.

Treatment of choice for chancroid is:

Penicillin

Erythromycin

Chloramphenicol

Tetracyclines

None

21.

Ciprofloxacin should not be given to an asthmatic using theophylline because:

Ciprofloxacin inhibits theophylline metabolism

Theophylline inhibits ciprofloxacin metabolism

Theophylline induces metabolism of ciprofloxacin

Ciprofloxacin decreases effect of theophylline

None

22.

Redman syndrome is due to:

Polymyxin

Vancomycin

Rifampicin

Teicoplanin

Erythromycin

None

23.

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of acute bacterial meningitis?

Streptomycin

Ceftriaxone

Sulfamethoxazole

Erythromycin

None

24.

Drug of choice for sore throat caused by Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus is:

Penicillin

Ceftriaxone

Sulfonamides

Erythromycin

None

25.

A 68-year-old man presents from a nursing home with fever, increased urinary frequency and urgency, and mental status changes. He has a penicillin allergy of anaphylaxis. Which of the following β-lactams is the most appropriate choice for gram-negative coverage of this patient’s urinary tract infection?

Ceftaroline

Cefepime

Aztreonam

Ertapenem

None

26.

Which of the following adverse effects is often employed as a therapeutic use for erythromycin?

Deposition in bone

Photosensitivity

Increased gastrointestinal motility

QTc prolongation

None

27.

Linezolid is best used for:

MRSA

E.coli

VRSA

K.pneumoniae

None

28.

Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?

Dicloxacillin

Piperacillin

Cloxacillin

Cephalexin

None

29.

Which of the following should be monitored if linezolid is given for more than 14 days?

Platelet count

Audiometry

Kidney function test

Liver function tests

None

30.

A post operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which of the following is the most likely combination that was given?

Ampicillin and chloramphenicol

Vancomycin and amikacin

Cephalexin and gentamicin

Ciprofloxacin and piperacillin

None

31.

Drug of choice for acute meningococcal pyogenic meningitis is:

Chloramphenicol

Amoxycillin

Sulphonamides

Crystalline penicillin

None

32.

Drug of choice for antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis is:

Metronidazole

Clindamycin

Penicillin G

Oral vancomycin

None

33.

Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

Penicillin

Erythromycin

Gentamicin

Chloramphenicol

Tetracicline

None

34.

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in immunocompromised patients is:

Cotrimoxazole

Amoxycillin

Cefotetan

Dexamethasone

None

1 out of 34

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibiotics and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIVIRAL AND ANTIFUNGAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral and antifungal drugs:

The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:

Griseofulvin

Amphotericin B

5-Flucytosine

Fluconazole

None

Pancreatitis is a common complication of which one of the following:

Didanosine

Stavudine

Zidovudine

Zalcitabine

None

Mechanism of action of terbinafine is?

Prevents formation of purine

Binds to ergosterol

Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis

Inhition of microtubule formation

None

The drug used to treat acyclovir resistant Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infection is:

Abacavir

Valacyclovir

Ganciclovir

Foscarnet

None

Which of the following has poorest oral bioavailability?

Zanamivir

Amantadine

Oseltamivir

Rimantidine

None

Enfuvirtide belongs to the class of:

Fusion inhibitors

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Protease inhibitors

Gp 120 inhibitors

None

A diabetic patient presents with fungal infection of sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual impairment. The best drug for treatment of this patient is:

Amphotericin B

Broad spectrum antibiotics

Ketoconazole

Itraconazole

None

Following drugs act against HIV-2 except:

Tenofovir

Ritonavir

Efavirenz

Zalcitabine

None

Drug of choice for chronic hepatitis –B is:

Lamivudine

Zidovudine

IFN-alpha

Ribavirin

None

10.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex virus infection is:

Zidovudine

Acyclovir

Ribavarin

Indinavir

None

11.

All of the following are common adverse effects of HAART therapy except:

Lipodytrophy

Optic neuritis

Steatosis

Increased cholesterol

None

12.

Drug of choice for acyclovir resistant herpes is:

Cidofovir

Foscarnet

Gancyclovir

Valacyclovir

None

13.

Which of the following is oral drug for treatment of hepatitis C?

Peg-interferon

Ledipasvir

Ribamivir

Lamivudine

None

14.

Treatment of choice for coccidiodomycosis is:

Flucytosine

Amphotericin

Fluconazole

Griseofulvin

None

15.

Which of the following drugs is used to prevent HIV transmission from an HIV positive pregnant mother to child? (AIIMS Nov. 2011)

Lamivudine

Nevirapine

Stavudine

Didanosine

None

16.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex keratitis is:

Interferon

Ganciclovir

Acyclovir

Amantadine

None

17.

The minimum period required for post-exposure chemoprophylaxis for HIV is:

12 weeks

6 weeks

4 weeks

8 weeks

None

18.

Mechanism of action of oseltamivir is:

Block DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Apoptosis of respiratory epithelial cells

Blocks M2 protein

Neuraminidase inhibitor

None

19.

Which of the following anti-metabolites act as an antifungal agent?

5-Flucytosine (5 FC)

Paclitaxel

Chlorambucil

Decarbazine

None

20.

Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is:

Lamivudine

Zidovudine

Stavudine

Didanosine

None

21.

Liposomal amphotericin B has the following advantage over conventional amphotericin B:

Absence of infusional toxicity

Lesser nephrotoxicity

Once a week administration

Lesser cost

None

22.

Mechanism of action of protease inhibitors is:

Prevents translation of viral RNA

Prevents maturation of new viral particles

Inhibits proviral RNA synthesis

Causes apoptosis of the affected cells

None

23.

Drugs that can be used to treat candida infection are all EXCEPT:

Amphotericin

Griseofulvin

Nystatin

Ketoconazole

None

24.

Drug of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis is:

Amantadine

Interferon

Vidarabine

Acyclovir

None

25.

Amphotericin B toxicity can be reduced by?

Injecting the drug with dextrose

Incorporating it in liposomal complex

Combining with flucytosine

Combining with fluconazole

None

26.

A person is being treated for Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects is:

Efavirenz

Didanosine

Ritonavir

Raltegravir

None

27.

Which of the following is most common side effect of zidovudine?

Peripheral neuropathy

Anemia

Lactic acidosis

None

28.

Which drug would treat both dermatophytosis and candidal infections?

Griseofulvin

Nystatin

Ketoconazole

Tolnaftate

None

1 out of 28

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral Drugs & Antifungal Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIMALARIAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs:

Tissue schizontocide which prevents relapse of vivax malaria is:

Primaquine

Quinine

Pyrimethamine

Chloroquine

None

First line drug for falciparum malaria in pregnancy is:

Primaquine

Tetracycline

Quinine

Chloroquine

None

Drug of choice for treatment of malaria due to P. vivax in a 25 year old pregnant female is:

Chloroquine

Primaquine

Quinine

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine

None

Drug of choice in a patient with severe complicated falciparum malaria is:

Quinine

Chloroquine

Artesunate

Artemether

None

Chloroquine is given as 600 mg loading dose because:

It is rapidly metabolized

It is rapidly absorbed

It has increased tissue binding

It is rapidly eliminated

None

Chemoprophylaxis in an Englishman visiting chloroquine and mefloquine resistant malaria region is done with:

Hydroxychloroquine

Primaquine

Amodiaquine

Doxycycline

None

Which of the following antimalarial drugs is a slow acting schizonticide?

Artemether

Mefloquine

Pyrimethamine

Quinine

None

The development of resistance to conventional treatment has led WHO to recommend the use of combination therapies containing artemisinin derivative (artemisinin-based combination therapies also known as ACTs). All of the following combination therapies are recommended if such resistance is suspected, except:

Artesunate plus quinine

Artesunate plus pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine

Artemether plus lumefantrine

Artesunate plus mefloquine

None

Which antimalarial drug is known to cause neuropsychiatric adverse reaction?

Artesunate

Mefloquine

Artimisnin

Quinine

None

10.

Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria in children?

Chloroquine

Tetracycline

Clindamycin

Doxycycline

None

11.

Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is safe for use in pregnancy?

Atovaquone

Tetracycline

Proguanil

Primaquine

None

12.

Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria is:

Primaquine

Chloroquine

Pyrimethamine

Quinine

None

13.

Drug of choice for chloroquine resistant malaria in pregnancy is:

Quinine

Sulphadoxine + pyrimethamine

Mefloquine

Artemisinin

None

14.

Drug of choice for the treatment of a pregnant woman with P vivax malaria is:

Quinine

Artemether

Chloroquine

Paracetamol

None

15.

Absorption of which of the following anti-malarial drug increases with food intake?

Amodiaquine

Mefloquine

Chloroquine

Lumefantrine

None

16.

Which one of the following drug may be used for prevention of relapse of P. vivax infection:

Chloroquine

Primaquine

Tetracycline

Atovaquone

None

17.

Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P. falciparum as well as P. vivax:

Mefloquine

Artesunate

Quinine

Proguanil

None

18.

Which of the following can cause hypoglycemia in a patient of severe cerebral malaria on treatment?

Chloroquine

Quinine

Mefloquine

Halofantrine

None

19.

Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax is by:

Primaquine

Artesunate

Tetracycline

Chloroquine

None

20.

Radical cure is required for malaria caused by:

P. falciparum and P. vivax

P. falciparum and P. malariae

P. vivax and P. ovale

P. vivax and P. malariae

None

1 out of 20

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIPROTOZOAL AND ANTIHELMINTHIC DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy: Antiprotozoal and antihelminthic drugs:

Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by:

Psoralens

Contrimoxazole

Permethrin

Ivermectin

None

DEC (Di-ethyl-carbamazine) is used for the treatment of:

Dracunculiasis

Filariasis

Schistosomiasis

Taeniasis

None

The drug of choice for schistosomiasis is:

Metronidazole

Triclabendazole

Albendazole

Praziquantel

None

Drug of choice for medical treatment of hydatid cyst of liver is:

Ivermectin

Albendazole

Praziquantel

Thiabendazole

None

Round worm infection is best treated with:

Mebendazole

Albendazol

Metronidazole

Pyrantel pamoate

None

Drug of choice for hookworm infestation is:

Bephenium hydroxynaphthoate

Piperazine citrate

Albendazole

Mebendazole

None

Drug commonly used in the treatment of echinococosis is:

Metronidazole

Ivermectin

Pyrental prermeated

Albendazole

None

A female presented with frothy, greenish vaginal discharge with a musty smell. On examination ‘strawberry vagina’ was noted. A diagnosis of trichomonas vaginalis was made. Drug of choice is:

Erythromycin

Fluconazole

Metronidazole

Tetracycline

None

Metronidazole is effective in all of the following conditions except:

Neurocysticercosis

Giardiasis

Pseudomembranous colitis

Amebic liver abscess

None

10.

Ivermectin is used for the treatment of:

Hookworm infestation

Filariasis

Ascariasis

Teniasis

None

11.

Drug of choice for kala-azar is:

Penicillin

Sodium stibogluconate

Amphotericin B

Pentamidine

None

12.

Drug of choice for neurocysticercosis is:

Piperazine

Albendazole

Praziquantel

Levamisole

None

13.

Disulfiram like interaction with alcohol is seen with all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Griseofulvin

Metronidazole

Cefoperazone

Satranidazole

None

14.

Amphotericin B produce antifungal action by acting on:

Nucleic acid

Ribosome

Cell wall

Cell membrane

None

15.

All of these are used in the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis except:

Paromomycin

Miltefosine

Hydroxychloroquine

Sitamaquine

None

16.

Which of the following drug causes flaccid paralysis of ascaris?

Piperazine

Ivermectin

Albendazole

Pyrantel pamoate

None

17.

Bull’s eye retinopathy is seen in:

Chloroquine

Ethambutol

Methanol

Steroids

None

18.

Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis?

Diethyl carbamazine

Praziquantel

Ivermectin

Albendazole

None

19.

Albendazole is effective against all of the following except:

Roundworm

Pinworm

Tapeworm

Hookworm

None

1 out of 19

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiprotozoal & antihelminthic drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

Disclaimer: This article is for informational purposes only and does not constitute medical advice. Always seek the advice of a healthcare provider with any questions regarding a medical condition.

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