Antimicrobial chemotherapy - Quizzes| Pharmacology Mentor

ANTIBACTERIALS

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ANTIVIRAL AND ANTIFUNGAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral and antifungal drugs:

Which of the following is most common side effect of zidovudine?

Peripheral neuropathy

Lactic acidosis

Anemia

None

Which of the following has poorest oral bioavailability?

Oseltamivir

Amantadine

Rimantidine

Zanamivir

None

Following drugs act against HIV-2 except:

Ritonavir

Tenofovir

Efavirenz

Zalcitabine

None

Mechanism of action of oseltamivir is:

Block DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Apoptosis of respiratory epithelial cells

Neuraminidase inhibitor

Blocks M2 protein

None

Treatment of choice for coccidiodomycosis is:

Amphotericin

Griseofulvin

Flucytosine

Fluconazole

None

Drugs that can be used to treat candida infection are all EXCEPT:

Nystatin

Griseofulvin

Ketoconazole

Amphotericin

None

Drug of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis is:

Acyclovir

Amantadine

Vidarabine

Interferon

None

Drug of choice for acyclovir resistant herpes is:

Valacyclovir

Gancyclovir

Foscarnet

Cidofovir

None

The drug used to treat acyclovir resistant Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infection is:

Ganciclovir

Abacavir

Valacyclovir

Foscarnet

None

10.

Which of the following drugs is used to prevent HIV transmission from an HIV positive pregnant mother to child? (AIIMS Nov. 2011)

Didanosine

Stavudine

Nevirapine

Lamivudine

None

11.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex virus infection is:

Ribavarin

Zidovudine

Indinavir

Acyclovir

None

12.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex keratitis is:

Amantadine

Acyclovir

Ganciclovir

Interferon

None

13.

All of the following are common adverse effects of HAART therapy except:

Increased cholesterol

Lipodytrophy

Steatosis

Optic neuritis

None

14.

Enfuvirtide belongs to the class of:

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Protease inhibitors

Gp 120 inhibitors

Fusion inhibitors

None

15.

The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:

Fluconazole

Amphotericin B

5-Flucytosine

Griseofulvin

None

16.

Amphotericin B toxicity can be reduced by?

Combining with fluconazole

Combining with flucytosine

Injecting the drug with dextrose

Incorporating it in liposomal complex

None

17.

Liposomal amphotericin B has the following advantage over conventional amphotericin B:

Once a week administration

Lesser cost

Absence of infusional toxicity

Lesser nephrotoxicity

None

18.

Drug of choice for chronic hepatitis –B is:

Lamivudine

IFN-alpha

Zidovudine

Ribavirin

None

19.

Mechanism of action of terbinafine is?

Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis

Prevents formation of purine

Inhition of microtubule formation

Binds to ergosterol

None

20.

The minimum period required for post-exposure chemoprophylaxis for HIV is:

4 weeks

12 weeks

6 weeks

8 weeks

None

21.

Mechanism of action of protease inhibitors is:

Prevents translation of viral RNA

Inhibits proviral RNA synthesis

Causes apoptosis of the affected cells

Prevents maturation of new viral particles

None

22.

A person is being treated for Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects is:

Raltegravir

Didanosine

Efavirenz

Ritonavir

None

23.

Which of the following is oral drug for treatment of hepatitis C?

Ledipasvir

Peg-interferon

Lamivudine

Ribamivir

None

24.

A diabetic patient presents with fungal infection of sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual impairment. The best drug for treatment of this patient is:

Broad spectrum antibiotics

Ketoconazole

Itraconazole

Amphotericin B

None

25.

Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is:

Didanosine

Zidovudine

Lamivudine

Stavudine

None

26.

Which of the following anti-metabolites act as an antifungal agent?

Decarbazine

Chlorambucil

Paclitaxel

5-Flucytosine (5 FC)

None

27.

Which drug would treat both dermatophytosis and candidal infections?

Tolnaftate

Griseofulvin

Ketoconazole

Nystatin

None

28.

Pancreatitis is a common complication of which one of the following:

Didanosine

Zalcitabine

Stavudine

Zidovudine

None

1 out of 28

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral Drugs & Antifungal Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIMALARIAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs:

The development of resistance to conventional treatment has led WHO to recommend the use of combination therapies containing artemisinin derivative (artemisinin-based combination therapies also known as ACTs). All of the following combination therapies are recommended if such resistance is suspected, except:

Artemether plus lumefantrine

Artesunate plus mefloquine

Artesunate plus quinine

Artesunate plus pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine

None

Radical cure is required for malaria caused by:

P. vivax and P. ovale

P. vivax and P. malariae

P. falciparum and P. vivax

P. falciparum and P. malariae

None

Tissue schizontocide which prevents relapse of vivax malaria is:

Primaquine

Quinine

Pyrimethamine

Chloroquine

None

Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P. falciparum as well as P. vivax:

Quinine

Proguanil

Mefloquine

Artesunate

None

Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax is by:

Tetracycline

Artesunate

Chloroquine

Primaquine

None

Drug of choice in a patient with severe complicated falciparum malaria is:

Artemether

Chloroquine

Artesunate

Quinine

None

Which antimalarial drug is known to cause neuropsychiatric adverse reaction?

Mefloquine

Artimisnin

Quinine

Artesunate

None

Drug of choice for treatment of malaria due to P. vivax in a 25 year old pregnant female is:

Quinine

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine

Chloroquine

Primaquine

None

Drug of choice for the treatment of a pregnant woman with P vivax malaria is:

Chloroquine

Paracetamol

Quinine

Artemether

None

10.

Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria in children?

Clindamycin

Chloroquine

Tetracycline

Doxycycline

None

11.

Chemoprophylaxis in an Englishman visiting chloroquine and mefloquine resistant malaria region is done with:

Amodiaquine

Doxycycline

Hydroxychloroquine

Primaquine

None

12.

Which of the following can cause hypoglycemia in a patient of severe cerebral malaria on treatment?

Halofantrine

Quinine

Chloroquine

Mefloquine

None

13.

Absorption of which of the following anti-malarial drug increases with food intake?

Lumefantrine

Mefloquine

Amodiaquine

Chloroquine

None

14.

Which one of the following drug may be used for prevention of relapse of P. vivax infection:

Tetracycline

Chloroquine

Atovaquone

Primaquine

None

15.

Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is safe for use in pregnancy?

Atovaquone

Proguanil

Primaquine

Tetracycline

None

16.

Which of the following antimalarial drugs is a slow acting schizonticide?

Pyrimethamine

Quinine

Artemether

Mefloquine

None

17.

First line drug for falciparum malaria in pregnancy is:

Chloroquine

Tetracycline

Primaquine

Quinine

None

18.

Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria is:

Quinine

Chloroquine

Pyrimethamine

Primaquine

None

19.

Chloroquine is given as 600 mg loading dose because:

It is rapidly eliminated

It is rapidly metabolized

It is rapidly absorbed

It has increased tissue binding

None

20.

Drug of choice for chloroquine resistant malaria in pregnancy is:

Artemisinin

Quinine

Mefloquine

Sulphadoxine + pyrimethamine

None

1 out of 20

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIPROTOZOAL AND ANTIHELMINTHIC DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy: Antiprotozoal and antihelminthic drugs:

Metronidazole is effective in all of the following conditions except:

Pseudomembranous colitis

Neurocysticercosis

Giardiasis

Amebic liver abscess

None

Drug of choice for hookworm infestation is:

Albendazole

Mebendazole

Piperazine citrate

Bephenium hydroxynaphthoate

None

Drug of choice for medical treatment of hydatid cyst of liver is:

Thiabendazole

Ivermectin

Praziquantel

Albendazole

None

Bull’s eye retinopathy is seen in:

Steroids

Ethambutol

Methanol

Chloroquine

None

Which of the following drug causes flaccid paralysis of ascaris?

Pyrantel pamoate

Albendazole

Piperazine

Ivermectin

None

Albendazole is effective against all of the following except:

Roundworm

Pinworm

Hookworm

Tapeworm

None

Amphotericin B produce antifungal action by acting on:

Ribosome

Cell wall

Nucleic acid

Cell membrane

None

All of these are used in the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis except:

Hydroxychloroquine

Miltefosine

Sitamaquine

Paromomycin

None

The drug of choice for schistosomiasis is:

Metronidazole

Albendazole

Triclabendazole

Praziquantel

None

10.

Drug commonly used in the treatment of echinococosis is:

Metronidazole

Albendazole

Ivermectin

Pyrental prermeated

None

11.

DEC (Di-ethyl-carbamazine) is used for the treatment of:

Taeniasis

Schistosomiasis

Dracunculiasis

Filariasis

None

12.

A female presented with frothy, greenish vaginal discharge with a musty smell. On examination ‘strawberry vagina’ was noted. A diagnosis of trichomonas vaginalis was made. Drug of choice is:

Fluconazole

Metronidazole

Tetracycline

Erythromycin

None

13.

Ivermectin is used for the treatment of:

Ascariasis

Filariasis

Hookworm infestation

Teniasis

None

14.

Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by:

Permethrin

Ivermectin

Contrimoxazole

Psoralens

None

15.

Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis?

Ivermectin

Praziquantel

Diethyl carbamazine

Albendazole

None

16.

Round worm infection is best treated with:

Pyrantel pamoate

Mebendazole

Metronidazole

Albendazol

None

17.

Drug of choice for neurocysticercosis is:

Albendazole

Piperazine

Levamisole

Praziquantel

None

18.

Disulfiram like interaction with alcohol is seen with all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Satranidazole

Metronidazole

Griseofulvin

Cefoperazone

None

19.

Drug of choice for kala-azar is:

Pentamidine

Penicillin

Amphotericin B

Sodium stibogluconate

None

1 out of 19

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiprotozoal & antihelminthic drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

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How to cite this page - Vancouver Style

Mentor, Pharmacology. PRACTICE QUIZZES on antimicrobial chemotherapy. Pharmacology Mentor. Available from: https://pharmacologymentor.com/practice-quizzes-on-antimicrobial-chemotherapy/. Accessed on November 19, 2025 at 12:55.

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PRACTICE QUIZZES on antimicrobial chemotherapy

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