Antimicrobial chemotherapy - Quizzes| Pharmacology Mentor

ANTIBACTERIALS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibacterials:

Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?

Dicloxacillin

Cephalexin

Cloxacillin

Piperacillin

None

Which of the following aminoglycosides has highest nephrotoxicity?

Neomycin

Amikacin

Paramomycin

Streptomycin

None

After 5 days of clindamycin treatment for a skin infection, a patient develops diarrhea (10 watery stools/day), severe abdominal pain, and fever. Which of the following organisms would you be concerned about as the causative pathogen of diarrhea?

Staphylococcus aureus

Clostridium difficile

Escherichia coli

Bacteroides fragilis C.

None

Erythromycin is drug of choice for treatment of diarrhea in children caused by:

Giardia lamblia

Staph. aureus

Vibrio cholerae

Campylobacter jejuni

None

A patient diagnosed as having ventilator associated pneumonia, is on treatment with ceftriaxone and amikacin. Culture and sensitivity turned out to be positive for ESBL producing Klebsiella infection. The most appropriate next action should be:

Change over to imipenem

Replace ceftazidime for ceftriaxone

Remove amikacin and add quinolone

Continue same antibiotic but at higher dose

None

Single dose aminoglycoside administration is more preferable than 8 hourly dose because of:

Increase perfusion of renal cortex

MBC

MIC

Post-antibiotic effect

Toxicity

None

In the given below figure at which site does penicillinase work?

Site D

Site A

Site B

Site C

None

A 21-year-old marathon runner reports to the clinic with acute Achilles tendon rupture. The nurse noted that the patient recently took an antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia. Which antibiotic may have contributed to tendon rupture?

Levofloxacin

Cefdinir

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

Minocycline

None

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur after limited exposure to some antimicrobial drug is called:

Bactericidal effect

Time dependent killing

Concentration dependent killing

Post-antibiotic effect

Sequential blockade

None

10.

A potent inhibitor of beta-lactamase is:

Clavulanic acid

Carbenicillin

Amoxicillin

Idoxuridine

Cefamandole

None

11.

Drug of choice for antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis is:

Metronidazole

Clindamycin

Oral vancomycin

Penicillin G

None

12.

Drug of choice for sore throat caused by Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus is:

Ceftriaxone

Penicillin

Sulfonamides

Erythromycin

None

13.

Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is:

Inhibits protein synthesis

Inhibits DNA gyrase

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

Inhibits cell membrane synthesis

Interferes with intermediary metabolism

None

14.

Which of the following adverse effects is often employed as a therapeutic use for erythromycin?

QTc prolongation

Photosensitivity

Deposition in bone

Increased gastrointestinal motility

None

15.

A 26 year old patient presents with suspected pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic should be given till culture sensitivity result come?

Cefotaxime + vancomycin

Ceftriaxone + metronidazole

Doxycycline

Penicillin

None

16.

A post operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which of the following is the most likely combination that was given?

Ciprofloxacin and piperacillin

Cephalexin and gentamicin

Vancomycin and amikacin

Ampicillin and chloramphenicol

None

17.

Which of the following should be monitored if linezolid is given for more than 14 days?

Platelet count

Liver function tests

Audiometry

Kidney function test

None

18.

A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the probable cause?

Kawasaki’s disease

Acute intermittent porphyria

Infectious mononucleosis

Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

None

19.

Ciprofloxacin should not be given to an asthmatic using theophylline because:

Theophylline induces metabolism of ciprofloxacin

Ciprofloxacin inhibits theophylline metabolism

Theophylline inhibits ciprofloxacin metabolism

Ciprofloxacin decreases effect of theophylline

None

20.

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of acute bacterial meningitis?

Ceftriaxone

Sulfamethoxazole

Streptomycin

Erythromycin

None

21.

A child was admitted to the hospital with H. influenza meningitis. Cefotaxime is preferred over ampicillin because:

Cefotaxime is more active against beta-lactamase producing strains

Cefotaxime is cidal drug whereas ampicillin is bacterostatic

Cefotaxime has more oral bioavailability

Cefotaxime is more active against H influenza having altered penicillin binding proteins

None

22.

Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

Erythromycin

Penicillin

Tetracicline

Chloramphenicol

Gentamicin

None

23.

Drug of choice for acute meningococcal pyogenic meningitis is:

Crystalline penicillin

Amoxycillin

Chloramphenicol

Sulphonamides

None

24.

A 23-year-old man was started on standard four-drug antimycobacterial therapy for treatment of active TB. He has epilepsy, which is controlled with carbamazepine. He has had no seizures in 5 years; however, upon return to clinic at 1 month, he reports having two seizures since his last visit. Which drug may be the reason his carbamazepine is less effective?

Rifampin

Pyrazinamide

Ethambutol

Isoniazid

None

25.

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in immunocompromised patients is:

Cefotetan

Amoxycillin

Dexamethasone

Cotrimoxazole

None

26.

This bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor is used for management of abdominal abcess caused by Bacteroides fragilis. Antibiotic associated colitis commonly occurs with use of this drug. Which of the following drug is being described?

Clindamycin

Minocycline

Ticarcillin

Clarithromycin

None

27.

Treatment of choice for chancroid is:

Penicillin

Chloramphenicol

Erythromycin

Tetracyclines

None

28.

Redman syndrome is due to:

Polymyxin

Erythromycin

Teicoplanin

Rifampicin

Vancomycin

None

29.

A 68-year-old man presents from a nursing home with fever, increased urinary frequency and urgency, and mental status changes. He has a penicillin allergy of anaphylaxis. Which of the following β-lactams is the most appropriate choice for gram-negative coverage of this patient’s urinary tract infection?

Ceftaroline

Aztreonam

Cefepime

Ertapenem

None

30.

Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis?

Ethambutol

Streptomycin

Bacitracin

Dapsone

Monobactams

None

31.

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis is:

Septran

Rifampicin

Erythromycin

Penicillin

None

32.

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Leakage from cell membrane

Inhibition of protein synthesis

Inhibition of DNA gyrase

None

33.

Empirical treatment for meningococcal meningitis is:

Cefotetan

Ceftriaxone

Gentamicin

Cefoxitin

None

34.

Linezolid is best used for:

K.pneumoniae

VRSA

MRSA

E.coli

None

1 out of 34

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibiotics and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIVIRAL AND ANTIFUNGAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral and antifungal drugs:

Which of the following anti-metabolites act as an antifungal agent?

Decarbazine

Paclitaxel

Chlorambucil

5-Flucytosine (5 FC)

None

Mechanism of action of terbinafine is?

Inhition of microtubule formation

Binds to ergosterol

Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis

Prevents formation of purine

None

The minimum period required for post-exposure chemoprophylaxis for HIV is:

4 weeks

6 weeks

12 weeks

8 weeks

None

Which drug would treat both dermatophytosis and candidal infections?

Griseofulvin

Ketoconazole

Nystatin

Tolnaftate

None

Which of the following has poorest oral bioavailability?

Rimantidine

Oseltamivir

Amantadine

Zanamivir

None

Drug of choice for acyclovir resistant herpes is:

Cidofovir

Foscarnet

Valacyclovir

Gancyclovir

None

All of the following are common adverse effects of HAART therapy except:

Increased cholesterol

Lipodytrophy

Optic neuritis

Steatosis

None

Which of the following drugs is used to prevent HIV transmission from an HIV positive pregnant mother to child? (AIIMS Nov. 2011)

Stavudine

Didanosine

Nevirapine

Lamivudine

None

The drug used to treat acyclovir resistant Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infection is:

Abacavir

Foscarnet

Ganciclovir

Valacyclovir

None

10.

Treatment of choice for coccidiodomycosis is:

Flucytosine

Amphotericin

Griseofulvin

Fluconazole

None

11.

Pancreatitis is a common complication of which one of the following:

Didanosine

Zidovudine

Stavudine

Zalcitabine

None

12.

Amphotericin B toxicity can be reduced by?

Combining with fluconazole

Incorporating it in liposomal complex

Combining with flucytosine

Injecting the drug with dextrose

None

13.

Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is:

Didanosine

Lamivudine

Stavudine

Zidovudine

None

14.

Mechanism of action of protease inhibitors is:

Causes apoptosis of the affected cells

Prevents translation of viral RNA

Inhibits proviral RNA synthesis

Prevents maturation of new viral particles

None

15.

Drug of choice for chronic hepatitis –B is:

Ribavirin

IFN-alpha

Lamivudine

Zidovudine

None

16.

The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:

5-Flucytosine

Amphotericin B

Griseofulvin

Fluconazole

None

17.

A diabetic patient presents with fungal infection of sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual impairment. The best drug for treatment of this patient is:

Broad spectrum antibiotics

Ketoconazole

Itraconazole

Amphotericin B

None

18.

Mechanism of action of oseltamivir is:

Blocks M2 protein

Neuraminidase inhibitor

Apoptosis of respiratory epithelial cells

Block DNA dependent RNA polymerase

None

19.

Which of the following is oral drug for treatment of hepatitis C?

Ledipasvir

Peg-interferon

Lamivudine

Ribamivir

None

20.

Which of the following is most common side effect of zidovudine?

Anemia

Peripheral neuropathy

Lactic acidosis

None

21.

Drugs that can be used to treat candida infection are all EXCEPT:

Ketoconazole

Amphotericin

Griseofulvin

Nystatin

None

22.

A person is being treated for Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects is:

Didanosine

Efavirenz

Raltegravir

Ritonavir

None

23.

Enfuvirtide belongs to the class of:

Gp 120 inhibitors

Fusion inhibitors

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Protease inhibitors

None

24.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex keratitis is:

Interferon

Ganciclovir

Acyclovir

Amantadine

None

25.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex virus infection is:

Indinavir

Zidovudine

Acyclovir

Ribavarin

None

26.

Liposomal amphotericin B has the following advantage over conventional amphotericin B:

Once a week administration

Lesser cost

Lesser nephrotoxicity

Absence of infusional toxicity

None

27.

Following drugs act against HIV-2 except:

Zalcitabine

Tenofovir

Ritonavir

Efavirenz

None

28.

Drug of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis is:

Amantadine

Acyclovir

Vidarabine

Interferon

None

1 out of 28

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral Drugs & Antifungal Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIMALARIAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs:

Drug of choice for the treatment of a pregnant woman with P vivax malaria is:

Quinine

Artemether

Chloroquine

Paracetamol

None

Drug of choice for treatment of malaria due to P. vivax in a 25 year old pregnant female is:

Quinine

Chloroquine

Primaquine

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine

None

Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria in children?

Chloroquine

Clindamycin

Tetracycline

Doxycycline

None

The development of resistance to conventional treatment has led WHO to recommend the use of combination therapies containing artemisinin derivative (artemisinin-based combination therapies also known as ACTs). All of the following combination therapies are recommended if such resistance is suspected, except:

Artesunate plus pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine

Artemether plus lumefantrine

Artesunate plus mefloquine

Artesunate plus quinine

None

Tissue schizontocide which prevents relapse of vivax malaria is:

Quinine

Pyrimethamine

Primaquine

Chloroquine

None

Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria is:

Primaquine

Pyrimethamine

Quinine

Chloroquine

None

Which one of the following drug may be used for prevention of relapse of P. vivax infection:

Chloroquine

Atovaquone

Tetracycline

Primaquine

None

Chloroquine is given as 600 mg loading dose because:

It is rapidly absorbed

It has increased tissue binding

It is rapidly eliminated

It is rapidly metabolized

None

Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P. falciparum as well as P. vivax:

Mefloquine

Quinine

Proguanil

Artesunate

None

10.

Which antimalarial drug is known to cause neuropsychiatric adverse reaction?

Mefloquine

Artimisnin

Artesunate

Quinine

None

11.

Chemoprophylaxis in an Englishman visiting chloroquine and mefloquine resistant malaria region is done with:

Hydroxychloroquine

Primaquine

Doxycycline

Amodiaquine

None

12.

Radical cure is required for malaria caused by:

P. vivax and P. malariae

P. vivax and P. ovale

P. falciparum and P. malariae

P. falciparum and P. vivax

None

13.

Drug of choice for chloroquine resistant malaria in pregnancy is:

Sulphadoxine + pyrimethamine

Artemisinin

Quinine

Mefloquine

None

14.

Which of the following can cause hypoglycemia in a patient of severe cerebral malaria on treatment?

Chloroquine

Mefloquine

Halofantrine

Quinine

None

15.

Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax is by:

Chloroquine

Artesunate

Tetracycline

Primaquine

None

16.

First line drug for falciparum malaria in pregnancy is:

Quinine

Chloroquine

Tetracycline

Primaquine

None

17.

Which of the following antimalarial drugs is a slow acting schizonticide?

Quinine

Artemether

Mefloquine

Pyrimethamine

None

18.

Drug of choice in a patient with severe complicated falciparum malaria is:

Artesunate

Artemether

Chloroquine

Quinine

None

19.

Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is safe for use in pregnancy?

Atovaquone

Proguanil

Primaquine

Tetracycline

None

20.

Absorption of which of the following anti-malarial drug increases with food intake?

Mefloquine

Lumefantrine

Amodiaquine

Chloroquine

None

1 out of 20

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIPROTOZOAL AND ANTIHELMINTHIC DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy: Antiprotozoal and antihelminthic drugs:

Round worm infection is best treated with:

Albendazol

Metronidazole

Mebendazole

Pyrantel pamoate

None

A female presented with frothy, greenish vaginal discharge with a musty smell. On examination ‘strawberry vagina’ was noted. A diagnosis of trichomonas vaginalis was made. Drug of choice is:

Tetracycline

Metronidazole

Erythromycin

Fluconazole

None

Albendazole is effective against all of the following except:

Tapeworm

Hookworm

Roundworm

Pinworm

None

Ivermectin is used for the treatment of:

Hookworm infestation

Teniasis

Filariasis

Ascariasis

None

Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis?

Diethyl carbamazine

Albendazole

Ivermectin

Praziquantel

None

Drug of choice for medical treatment of hydatid cyst of liver is:

Thiabendazole

Albendazole

Praziquantel

Ivermectin

None

Drug of choice for hookworm infestation is:

Piperazine citrate

Albendazole

Bephenium hydroxynaphthoate

Mebendazole

None

All of these are used in the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis except:

Hydroxychloroquine

Sitamaquine

Miltefosine

Paromomycin

None

Drug of choice for kala-azar is:

Pentamidine

Amphotericin B

Sodium stibogluconate

Penicillin

None

10.

The drug of choice for schistosomiasis is:

Albendazole

Metronidazole

Triclabendazole

Praziquantel

None

11.

Amphotericin B produce antifungal action by acting on:

Cell membrane

Nucleic acid

Ribosome

Cell wall

None

12.

Drug commonly used in the treatment of echinococosis is:

Metronidazole

Pyrental prermeated

Ivermectin

Albendazole

None

13.

Drug of choice for neurocysticercosis is:

Levamisole

Piperazine

Albendazole

Praziquantel

None

14.

Metronidazole is effective in all of the following conditions except:

Amebic liver abscess

Pseudomembranous colitis

Giardiasis

Neurocysticercosis

None

15.

DEC (Di-ethyl-carbamazine) is used for the treatment of:

Schistosomiasis

Taeniasis

Filariasis

Dracunculiasis

None

16.

Bull’s eye retinopathy is seen in:

Steroids

Chloroquine

Methanol

Ethambutol

None

17.

Disulfiram like interaction with alcohol is seen with all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Griseofulvin

Metronidazole

Satranidazole

Cefoperazone

None

18.

Which of the following drug causes flaccid paralysis of ascaris?

Ivermectin

Piperazine

Albendazole

Pyrantel pamoate

None

19.

Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by:

Psoralens

Contrimoxazole

Ivermectin

Permethrin

None

1 out of 19

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiprotozoal & antihelminthic drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

Disclaimer: This article is for informational purposes only and does not constitute medical advice. Always seek the advice of a healthcare provider with any questions regarding a medical condition.

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