Antimicrobial chemotherapy - Quizzes| Pharmacology Mentor

ANTIBACTERIALS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibacterials:

This bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor is used for management of abdominal abcess caused by Bacteroides fragilis. Antibiotic associated colitis commonly occurs with use of this drug. Which of the following drug is being described?

Minocycline

Ticarcillin

Clindamycin

Clarithromycin

None

A 26 year old patient presents with suspected pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic should be given till culture sensitivity result come?

Penicillin

Ceftriaxone + metronidazole

Doxycycline

Cefotaxime + vancomycin

None

Linezolid is best used for:

K.pneumoniae

E.coli

MRSA

VRSA

None

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of acute bacterial meningitis?

Ceftriaxone

Streptomycin

Erythromycin

Sulfamethoxazole

None

Single dose aminoglycoside administration is more preferable than 8 hourly dose because of:

MBC

Toxicity

MIC

Increase perfusion of renal cortex

Post-antibiotic effect

None

A post operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which of the following is the most likely combination that was given?

Ampicillin and chloramphenicol

Cephalexin and gentamicin

Ciprofloxacin and piperacillin

Vancomycin and amikacin

None

Erythromycin is drug of choice for treatment of diarrhea in children caused by:

Giardia lamblia

Staph. aureus

Vibrio cholerae

Campylobacter jejuni

None

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis is:

Septran

Rifampicin

Erythromycin

Penicillin

None

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur after limited exposure to some antimicrobial drug is called:

Post-antibiotic effect

Bactericidal effect

Time dependent killing

Concentration dependent killing

Sequential blockade

None

10.

Redman syndrome is due to:

Erythromycin

Vancomycin

Teicoplanin

Polymyxin

Rifampicin

None

11.

Which of the following should be monitored if linezolid is given for more than 14 days?

Platelet count

Kidney function test

Audiometry

Liver function tests

None

12.

Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is:

Interferes with intermediary metabolism

Inhibits cell membrane synthesis

Inhibits protein synthesis

Inhibits DNA gyrase

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

None

13.

Drug of choice for prophylaxis of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in immunocompromised patients is:

Amoxycillin

Cefotetan

Cotrimoxazole

Dexamethasone

None

14.

A potent inhibitor of beta-lactamase is:

Carbenicillin

Cefamandole

Amoxicillin

Clavulanic acid

Idoxuridine

None

15.

A 68-year-old man presents from a nursing home with fever, increased urinary frequency and urgency, and mental status changes. He has a penicillin allergy of anaphylaxis. Which of the following β-lactams is the most appropriate choice for gram-negative coverage of this patient’s urinary tract infection?

Ceftaroline

Ertapenem

Aztreonam

Cefepime

None

16.

Ciprofloxacin should not be given to an asthmatic using theophylline because:

Theophylline induces metabolism of ciprofloxacin

Ciprofloxacin decreases effect of theophylline

Ciprofloxacin inhibits theophylline metabolism

Theophylline inhibits ciprofloxacin metabolism

None

17.

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Inhibition of protein synthesis

Leakage from cell membrane

Inhibition of DNA gyrase

None

18.

A patient diagnosed as having ventilator associated pneumonia, is on treatment with ceftriaxone and amikacin. Culture and sensitivity turned out to be positive for ESBL producing Klebsiella infection. The most appropriate next action should be:

Change over to imipenem

Remove amikacin and add quinolone

Replace ceftazidime for ceftriaxone

Continue same antibiotic but at higher dose

None

19.

A 23-year-old man was started on standard four-drug antimycobacterial therapy for treatment of active TB. He has epilepsy, which is controlled with carbamazepine. He has had no seizures in 5 years; however, upon return to clinic at 1 month, he reports having two seizures since his last visit. Which drug may be the reason his carbamazepine is less effective?

Rifampin

Ethambutol

Isoniazid

Pyrazinamide

None

20.

Treatment of choice for chancroid is:

Tetracyclines

Erythromycin

Penicillin

Chloramphenicol

None

21.

Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

Erythromycin

Tetracicline

Penicillin

Gentamicin

Chloramphenicol

None

22.

In the given below figure at which site does penicillinase work?

Site D

Site A

Site C

Site B

None

23.

Which of the following aminoglycosides has highest nephrotoxicity?

Neomycin

Amikacin

Paramomycin

Streptomycin

None

24.

Drug of choice for acute meningococcal pyogenic meningitis is:

Crystalline penicillin

Amoxycillin

Chloramphenicol

Sulphonamides

None

25.

A child was admitted to the hospital with H. influenza meningitis. Cefotaxime is preferred over ampicillin because:

Cefotaxime is cidal drug whereas ampicillin is bacterostatic

Cefotaxime has more oral bioavailability

Cefotaxime is more active against beta-lactamase producing strains

Cefotaxime is more active against H influenza having altered penicillin binding proteins

None

26.

Drug of choice for antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis is:

Metronidazole

Penicillin G

Clindamycin

Oral vancomycin

None

27.

A 21-year-old marathon runner reports to the clinic with acute Achilles tendon rupture. The nurse noted that the patient recently took an antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia. Which antibiotic may have contributed to tendon rupture?

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

Levofloxacin

Minocycline

Cefdinir

None

28.

Which of the following adverse effects is often employed as a therapeutic use for erythromycin?

QTc prolongation

Photosensitivity

Deposition in bone

Increased gastrointestinal motility

None

29.

Drug of choice for sore throat caused by Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus is:

Sulfonamides

Erythromycin

Ceftriaxone

Penicillin

None

30.

Empirical treatment for meningococcal meningitis is:

Ceftriaxone

Cefoxitin

Cefotetan

Gentamicin

None

31.

After 5 days of clindamycin treatment for a skin infection, a patient develops diarrhea (10 watery stools/day), severe abdominal pain, and fever. Which of the following organisms would you be concerned about as the causative pathogen of diarrhea?

Escherichia coli

Clostridium difficile

Staphylococcus aureus

Bacteroides fragilis C.

None

32.

Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis?

Streptomycin

Ethambutol

Monobactams

Dapsone

Bacitracin

None

33.

Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?

Dicloxacillin

Cephalexin

Cloxacillin

Piperacillin

None

34.

A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the probable cause?

Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

Kawasaki’s disease

Acute intermittent porphyria

Infectious mononucleosis

None

1 out of 34

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antibiotics and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIVIRAL AND ANTIFUNGAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral and antifungal drugs:

All of the following are common adverse effects of HAART therapy except:

Increased cholesterol

Optic neuritis

Lipodytrophy

Steatosis

None

A diabetic patient presents with fungal infection of sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual impairment. The best drug for treatment of this patient is:

Ketoconazole

Amphotericin B

Itraconazole

Broad spectrum antibiotics

None

Drug of choice for chronic hepatitis –B is:

Zidovudine

IFN-alpha

Ribavirin

Lamivudine

None

The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:

Fluconazole

Griseofulvin

5-Flucytosine

Amphotericin B

None

Which of the following drugs is used to prevent HIV transmission from an HIV positive pregnant mother to child? (AIIMS Nov. 2011)

Stavudine

Nevirapine

Didanosine

Lamivudine

None

Drug of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis is:

Interferon

Vidarabine

Acyclovir

Amantadine

None

Which drug would treat both dermatophytosis and candidal infections?

Tolnaftate

Griseofulvin

Ketoconazole

Nystatin

None

Pancreatitis is a common complication of which one of the following:

Didanosine

Stavudine

Zidovudine

Zalcitabine

None

Enfuvirtide belongs to the class of:

Fusion inhibitors

Gp 120 inhibitors

Protease inhibitors

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

None

10.

The drug used to treat acyclovir resistant Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infection is:

Ganciclovir

Foscarnet

Valacyclovir

Abacavir

None

11.

Treatment of choice for coccidiodomycosis is:

Amphotericin

Fluconazole

Flucytosine

Griseofulvin

None

12.

Drugs that can be used to treat candida infection are all EXCEPT:

Griseofulvin

Ketoconazole

Amphotericin

Nystatin

None

13.

Which of the following anti-metabolites act as an antifungal agent?

5-Flucytosine (5 FC)

Decarbazine

Paclitaxel

Chlorambucil

None

14.

The minimum period required for post-exposure chemoprophylaxis for HIV is:

4 weeks

12 weeks

6 weeks

8 weeks

None

15.

Mechanism of action of oseltamivir is:

Blocks M2 protein

Apoptosis of respiratory epithelial cells

Neuraminidase inhibitor

Block DNA dependent RNA polymerase

None

16.

Which of the following is oral drug for treatment of hepatitis C?

Ledipasvir

Lamivudine

Ribamivir

Peg-interferon

None

17.

A person is being treated for Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects is:

Didanosine

Efavirenz

Raltegravir

Ritonavir

None

18.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex virus infection is:

Acyclovir

Ribavarin

Indinavir

Zidovudine

None

19.

Liposomal amphotericin B has the following advantage over conventional amphotericin B:

Once a week administration

Lesser nephrotoxicity

Absence of infusional toxicity

Lesser cost

None

20.

Which of the following is most common side effect of zidovudine?

Anemia

Peripheral neuropathy

Lactic acidosis

None

21.

Drug of choice for herpes simplex keratitis is:

Ganciclovir

Amantadine

Interferon

Acyclovir

None

22.

Mechanism of action of protease inhibitors is:

Inhibits proviral RNA synthesis

Causes apoptosis of the affected cells

Prevents maturation of new viral particles

Prevents translation of viral RNA

None

23.

Mechanism of action of terbinafine is?

Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis

Inhition of microtubule formation

Binds to ergosterol

Prevents formation of purine

None

24.

Drug of choice for acyclovir resistant herpes is:

Foscarnet

Gancyclovir

Valacyclovir

Cidofovir

None

25.

Which of the following has poorest oral bioavailability?

Rimantidine

Oseltamivir

Amantadine

Zanamivir

None

26.

Amphotericin B toxicity can be reduced by?

Combining with fluconazole

Incorporating it in liposomal complex

Injecting the drug with dextrose

Combining with flucytosine

None

27.

Following drugs act against HIV-2 except:

Zalcitabine

Tenofovir

Ritonavir

Efavirenz

None

28.

Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is:

Stavudine

Didanosine

Lamivudine

Zidovudine

None

1 out of 28

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiviral Drugs & Antifungal Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIMALARIAL DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs:

Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is safe for use in pregnancy?

Proguanil

Atovaquone

Primaquine

Tetracycline

None

Absorption of which of the following anti-malarial drug increases with food intake?

Chloroquine

Lumefantrine

Amodiaquine

Mefloquine

None

Drug of choice for the treatment of a pregnant woman with P vivax malaria is:

Artemether

Quinine

Chloroquine

Paracetamol

None

Which antimalarial drug is known to cause neuropsychiatric adverse reaction?

Mefloquine

Quinine

Artesunate

Artimisnin

None

First line drug for falciparum malaria in pregnancy is:

Quinine

Chloroquine

Primaquine

Tetracycline

None

Which of the following can cause hypoglycemia in a patient of severe cerebral malaria on treatment?

Quinine

Halofantrine

Mefloquine

Chloroquine

None

Radical cure is required for malaria caused by:

P. vivax and P. ovale

P. vivax and P. malariae

P. falciparum and P. vivax

P. falciparum and P. malariae

None

Tissue schizontocide which prevents relapse of vivax malaria is:

Chloroquine

Quinine

Pyrimethamine

Primaquine

None

Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria is:

Chloroquine

Primaquine

Quinine

Pyrimethamine

None

10.

Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax is by:

Chloroquine

Artesunate

Tetracycline

Primaquine

None

11.

The development of resistance to conventional treatment has led WHO to recommend the use of combination therapies containing artemisinin derivative (artemisinin-based combination therapies also known as ACTs). All of the following combination therapies are recommended if such resistance is suspected, except:

Artesunate plus mefloquine

Artesunate plus pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine

Artemether plus lumefantrine

Artesunate plus quinine

None

12.

Which of the following antimalarial drugs is a slow acting schizonticide?

Artemether

Pyrimethamine

Quinine

Mefloquine

None

13.

Chloroquine is given as 600 mg loading dose because:

It is rapidly absorbed

It has increased tissue binding

It is rapidly metabolized

It is rapidly eliminated

None

14.

Chemoprophylaxis in an Englishman visiting chloroquine and mefloquine resistant malaria region is done with:

Amodiaquine

Primaquine

Hydroxychloroquine

Doxycycline

None

15.

Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P. falciparum as well as P. vivax:

Quinine

Artesunate

Proguanil

Mefloquine

None

16.

Which one of the following drug may be used for prevention of relapse of P. vivax infection:

Chloroquine

Atovaquone

Primaquine

Tetracycline

None

17.

Drug of choice in a patient with severe complicated falciparum malaria is:

Artemether

Chloroquine

Quinine

Artesunate

None

18.

Drug of choice for chloroquine resistant malaria in pregnancy is:

Sulphadoxine + pyrimethamine

Artemisinin

Mefloquine

Quinine

None

19.

Drug of choice for treatment of malaria due to P. vivax in a 25 year old pregnant female is:

Primaquine

Chloroquine

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine

Quinine

None

20.

Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria in children?

Chloroquine

Doxycycline

Clindamycin

Tetracycline

None

1 out of 20

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antimalarial Drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

ANTIPROTOZOAL AND ANTIHELMINTHIC DRUGS

Quiz on Antimicrobial Chemotherapy: Antiprotozoal and antihelminthic drugs:

Drug of choice for neurocysticercosis is:

Piperazine

Praziquantel

Levamisole

Albendazole

None

Metronidazole is effective in all of the following conditions except:

Amebic liver abscess

Giardiasis

Pseudomembranous colitis

Neurocysticercosis

None

Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by:

Ivermectin

Contrimoxazole

Permethrin

Psoralens

None

Bull’s eye retinopathy is seen in:

Steroids

Ethambutol

Chloroquine

Methanol

None

Round worm infection is best treated with:

Mebendazole

Pyrantel pamoate

Metronidazole

Albendazol

None

The drug of choice for schistosomiasis is:

Albendazole

Metronidazole

Triclabendazole

Praziquantel

None

Drug of choice for kala-azar is:

Pentamidine

Amphotericin B

Sodium stibogluconate

Penicillin

None

Drug of choice for hookworm infestation is:

Bephenium hydroxynaphthoate

Piperazine citrate

Albendazole

Mebendazole

None

Albendazole is effective against all of the following except:

Tapeworm

Hookworm

Pinworm

Roundworm

None

10.

Drug of choice for medical treatment of hydatid cyst of liver is:

Ivermectin

Albendazole

Praziquantel

Thiabendazole

None

11.

Disulfiram like interaction with alcohol is seen with all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Cefoperazone

Satranidazole

Metronidazole

Griseofulvin

None

12.

Which of the following drug causes flaccid paralysis of ascaris?

Pyrantel pamoate

Piperazine

Ivermectin

Albendazole

None

13.

All of these are used in the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis except:

Paromomycin

Sitamaquine

Miltefosine

Hydroxychloroquine

None

14.

Ivermectin is used for the treatment of:

Filariasis

Teniasis

Ascariasis

Hookworm infestation

None

15.

Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis?

Diethyl carbamazine

Ivermectin

Praziquantel

Albendazole

None

16.

Amphotericin B produce antifungal action by acting on:

Cell membrane

Cell wall

Nucleic acid

Ribosome

None

17.

Drug commonly used in the treatment of echinococosis is:

Pyrental prermeated

Albendazole

Metronidazole

Ivermectin

None

18.

DEC (Di-ethyl-carbamazine) is used for the treatment of:

Taeniasis

Schistosomiasis

Filariasis

Dracunculiasis

None

19.

A female presented with frothy, greenish vaginal discharge with a musty smell. On examination ‘strawberry vagina’ was noted. A diagnosis of trichomonas vaginalis was made. Drug of choice is:

Tetracycline

Erythromycin

Metronidazole

Fluconazole

None

1 out of 19

Feel free to ask questions and provide any feedback/suggestions by filling in the comment box below.

Thanks for completing the Quiz!

Please note: These MCQs are intended as a general overview of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy - Antiprotozoal & antihelminthic drugs and are not a comprehensive assessment of the subject.

Time's up

Disclaimer: This article is for informational purposes only and does not constitute medical advice. Always seek the advice of a healthcare provider with any questions regarding a medical condition.

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