Quiz on antiarrhythmic drugs

A 70-year-old female with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and a recent diagnosis of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is started on oral amiodarone for rhythm control. She also takes theophylline for her COPD. Which of the following is a significant drug interaction to monitor for? *

A 75-year-old female with a history of stable atrial fibrillation and no significant comorbidities is referred for consideration of long-term rhythm control. Her renal function is mildly impaired (CrCl 45 mL/min). Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents would require dose adjustment due to her renal impairment? *

A 65-year-old female with known atrial fibrillation (AF) presents with a heart rate of 140 bpm and symptoms of dizziness. Her past medical history includes a recent myocardial infarction (MI) treated with PCI and a prescription for carvedilol. She denies chest pain or dyspnea. Her ECG shows rapid ventricular response in AF. Which of the following agents would be most appropriate for rate control in this patient, considering her history? *

What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers (Class II antiarrhythmics) in treating arrhythmias? *

Which class of antiarrhythmic drugs is most effective in terminating stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) due to its transient blockade of the AV node? *

A 68-year-old female with persistent atrial fibrillation is being considered for rhythm control. Her ECG shows a normal QTc interval. She has no history of heart failure or significant structural heart disease. Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents would be a reasonable choice for long-term rhythm control in this patient? *

What is the most common adverse effect associated with amiodarone therapy that necessitates careful monitoring? *

A 55-year-old male with a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy (EF 30%) is found to be in sustained monomorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT). He is hemodynamically stable. His current medications include lisinopril, furosemide, and carvedilol. Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is most appropriate for acute management of his VT? *

What is the primary mechanism of action of procainamide (Class Ia antiarrhythmic)? *

A 45-year-old male presents with new-onset palpitations and a wide-complex tachycardia on ECG. He has no known cardiac history. His vital signs are stable. His QRS duration is 0.16 seconds. Which of the following initial diagnostic steps is most crucial to guide further management? *

Which antiarrhythmic drug is known for its significant potential to cause Torsades de Pointes, especially in patients with electrolyte abnormalities or prolonged QTc intervals? *

A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and heart failure is brought to the emergency department with a regular, narrow-complex tachycardia at 170 bpm. His blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, and he is complaining of palpitations and shortness of breath. ECG confirms supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). He is hemodynamically unstable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management? *

Which antiarrhythmic drug is known for its broad spectrum of action, affecting sodium, potassium, and calcium channels, and also has beta-blocking properties? *

A 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with new-onset atrial flutter. His ECG shows a regular narrow-complex tachycardia at 150 bpm. He is asymptomatic. His current medications include lisinopril and atorvastatin. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological approach for rhythm control? *

A 60-year-old male with symptomatic ventricular tachycardia is treated with intravenous lidocaine. He develops a new onset of complete heart block. His QRS complexes were previously wide. What is the most likely explanation for this adverse effect? *

A 78-year-old male with a history of sick sinus syndrome and permanent atrial fibrillation is on chronic amiodarone therapy for rate and rhythm control. He develops new-onset shortness of breath and a dry cough. Chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? *

Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is a Class III agent that primarily prolongs the action potential duration and repolarization by blocking potassium channels? *

Which class of antiarrhythmic drugs primarily blocks the fast inward sodium current (INa)? *

A 50-year-old male with a history of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome and recurrent supraventricular tachycardia undergoes electrophysiology study (EPS). During the study, he develops rapid atrial fibrillation with conduction over an accessory pathway. His blood pressure is stable. Which of the following agents should be avoided in this situation? *

A 62-year-old male with a history of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is experiencing frequent symptomatic premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). He is otherwise stable. Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is generally considered safer for symptomatic PVCs in a patient with HFpEF? *